Tables
Q.No: 1
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?
Solution:
Q.No: 2
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?
Solution:
Q.No: 3
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
Solution:
Q.No: 4
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
Solution:
Q.No: 5
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?
Solution:
Q.No: 6
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?
Solution:
Q.No: 7
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics?
Solution:
Q.No: 8
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
In operations, Tara could have received the same grade as
Solution:
Q.No: 9
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
In Strategy, Gowri's grade point was higher than that obtained by
Solution:
Q.No: 10
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students' grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?
Solution:
Q.No: 11
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
To which country does University 5 belong?
Solution:
Q.No: 12
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
University 1 can belong to
Solution:
Q.No: 13
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?
Solution:
Q.No: 14
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh's homepage in the three days?
Solution:
Q.No: 15
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?
Solution:
Q.No: 16
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 17 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
A study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?
Solution:
Q.No: 17
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 65 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?
Solution:
Q.No: 18
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 65 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?
Solution:
Q.No: 19
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 65 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
Solution:
Q.No: 20
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 68 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
Solution:
Q.No: 21
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 68 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?
Solution:
Q.No: 22
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 68 to 70: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
The table below reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG).
M = Male, F = Female; Exe = Executive, Mgr = Manager, Dir = Director;
Y = Young, I = In between, O = Old
For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on
· Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
· Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
· E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?
Solution:
Q.No: 23
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?
Solution:
Q.No: 24
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semi-finals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?
Solution:
Q.No: 25
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?
Solution:
Q.No: 26
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
Solution:
Q.No: 27
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?
Solution:
Q.No: 28
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?
Solution:
Q.No: 29
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?
Solution:
Q.No: 30
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
· All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
· Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Parish in round 2.
· The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was a.
· 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
Which of the following statements must be true?
I. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
II. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.
Solution:
Q.No: 31
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. Has the lowest share in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.
Solution:
Q.No: 32
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.s lowest revenues are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
Solution:
Q.No: 33
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Honest Ltd. Has the highest share in the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. Has the highest share in the Bihar market.
Solution:
Q.No: 34
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order.
Further, it is known that:
· In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. Has the highest market share.
· Aggressive Ltd.s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.s by Rs. 5 million .
If Profitable Ltd.s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 35
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
Solution:
Q.No: 36
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.
Solution:
Q.No: 37
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest cost per unit?
Solution:
Q.No: 38
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
A health-drink companys R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100
The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
Solution:
Q.No: 39
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 34 to 37: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
Solution:
Q.No: 40
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 34 to 37: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
Solution:
Q.No: 41
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 34 to 37: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
Solution:
Q.No: 42
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 34 to 37: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
Solution:
Q.No: 43
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 38 to 41:Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
Solution:
Q.No: 44
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 38 to 41:Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?-
Solution:
Q.No: 45
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 38 to 41:Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
Solution:
Q.No: 46
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 38 to 41:Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below.
The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?
Solution:
Q.No: 47
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
Solution:
Q.No: 48
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
Solution:
Q.No: 49
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? (It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India).
Solution:
Q.No: 50
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
Solution:
Q.No: 51
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?
Solution:
Q.No: 52
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
Solution:
Q.No: 53
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, then what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
Solution:
Q.No: 54
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, then what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
Solution:
Q.No: 55
Test Name : CAT Paper 2007
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, then which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?
Solution:
Q.No: 56
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 32 to 34: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by her?
Solution:
Q.No: 57
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 32 to 34: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a section?
Solution:
Q.No: 58
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 32 to 34: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate marks obtained by him?
Solution:
Q.No: 59
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.
Questions below are independent of each other.
What is the approximate percentage change in the average gross of the HR department due to transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs. 8000 from the Marketing department?
Solution:
Q.No: 60
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.
Questions below are independent of each other.
There was a mutual transfer of an employee between Marketing and Finance departments and transfer of one employee from Marketing to HR. As a result, the average age of finance department increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. What is the new average age of HR department?
Solution:
Q.No: 61
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.
Questions below are independent of each other.
If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance department to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred from Marketing department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average basic pay of HR department?
Solution:
Q.No: 62
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q156 to 160: The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 − 85 to 1989 − 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
The increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year is lowest for the year :
Solution:
Q.No: 63
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q156 to 160: The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 − 85 to 1989 − 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
The per capita income is highest for the year :
Solution:
By referring to the above table,
Per Capita Income is highest for the year 1989 90 ≈ 5319.
Per Capita Income is highest for the year 1989 90 ≈ 5319.
Q.No: 64
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q156 to 160: The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 − 85 to 1989 − 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
The difference between the percentage increase in per capita income and the percentage increase in the population compared to the previous year is highest for the year:
Solution:
Q.No: 65
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q156 to 160: The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 − 85 to 1989 − 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
The rate of increase in population was lowest in the year:
Solution:
From the table given for Q158, it is apparent that the
rate of increase of population is lowest for the year
1985-86 viz.1.35%.
Q.No: 66
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q156 to 160: The following table gives the national income and the population of a country for the years 1984 − 85 to 1989 − 90. For each o the following questions choose the best alternative:
Increase in the per capita income compared to the previous year among the years given below was highest for the year:
Solution:
Among the years given in the answer choices, the
increase in per capita income compared to previous
year is highest for the year 1985 - 86.
Q.No: 67
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q172 to 175:
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Over 1990 2010, which two fuels meet more than 60 percent of the total energy demand of both World and Asia?
Solution:
Thus, we can see that Solid Fuels and Petroleum together constitute more than 60% of total energy in both World and
Asia for the given period.
Q.No: 68
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q172 to 175:
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Which fuels proportion in the total energy demand increases over the decade 19902000 and decreases over the decade 2000 2010 for both the World and Asia?
Solution:
As seen from the above table, Petroleum is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand increases during 1990-2000 and decreases during 2000-2010 for both World and Asia.
Q.No: 69
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q172 to 175:
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will decrease continuously over the period 1990 2010, in Asia?
Solution:
Q.No: 70
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q172 to 175:
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Given below are the forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 1990, 2000 and 2010 AD. The demand is given in million barrels per day, crude oil equivalent.
Which is the fuel whose proportion to the total energy demand of the world will remain constant over the period 1990 2010 but whose proportion will increase in the total energy demand in Asia?
Solution:
Q.No: 71
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q160 163 : are based on the following table and information given below:
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
In 1984 85 what percentage of total values of exports accounts for items related to food
Solution:
Q.No: 72
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q160 163 : are based on the following table and information given below:
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
During 1984 85, how much more raw material than food was exported?
Solution:
Q.No: 73
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q160 163 : are based on the following table and information given below:
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
Value of exports of raw materials during 1984 85 was how much percent less than that for 1985 86?
Solution:
Q.No: 74
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q160 163 : are based on the following table and information given below:
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
In 1984 85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
In 1985 86 the ratio of percentage of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
Exports of food in 1985 86 exceeds the 1984 85 figures by Rs. 1006 crore.
The change in value of exports of manufactured articles from 1984 85 to 1985 86 is
Solution:
Q.No: 75
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q175 - 178 : are based on the following information :
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
What is the growth rate of sales of books at primary school level from 1975 to 1980?
Solution:
Q.No: 76
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q175 - 178 : are based on the following information :
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
Which of the categories shows the lowest growth rate from 1975 to 1980?
Solution:
Q.No: 77
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q175 - 178 : are based on the following information :
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
Which category had the highest growth rate in the period?
Solution:
Again referring to the above table we can see that the
percentage growth rate is maximum for secondary
level books viz.125%.
Q.No: 78
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q175 - 178 : are based on the following information :
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
Which of the categories had either a consistent growth or a consistent decline in the period shown?
Solution:
It can be seen from the given table that though primary
level books have shown a consistent growth, it has
declined in the year 1978. On the other hand even
Secondary and Higher secondary level books have
shown a consistent increase except for the year 1977
when it had declined. But the graduate level books
have shown a consistent growth over the period.
Q.No: 79
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the tax per rupee of profit before tax lowest?
Solution:
Q.No: 80
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the sales per rupee of share capital highest?
Solution:
Q.No: 81
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the profit before tax per rupee of sales highest?
Solution:
Q.No: 82
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
In which year was the percentage addition to reserves over previous years reserves the highest?
Solution:
Q.No: 83
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from profit before tax and the remaining amount is apportioned to dividend and retained earnings. The retained earnings were accumulated into reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs.80 lakh.
Amount of the reserves at the end of 1994 is
Solution:
From the above table, it is clear that the amount of
reserves at the end of 1994 = (535 + 400) = Rs.935 lakh.
Q.No: 84
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following table.
The maximum percentage decrease in market share is
Solution:
It can be seen that the market share of CO in Kolkata has
halved in 1994. None of the other products show such a
drastic decrease in any city. Hence, percentage
decrease in market share = 50%.
Q.No: 85
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 181 to 185: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
What is the total requirement of cloth?
Solution:
Total requirement of cloth
= Total number of shirts × Cloth required per shirt
= (20 + 30 + 30 + 10 + 10) × 1000 × 1.5
= 1,50,000 m.
= (20 + 30 + 30 + 10 + 10) × 1000 × 1.5
= 1,50,000 m.
Q.No: 86
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 181 to 185: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
How many metres of low-quality cloth is consumed?
Solution:
Total low quality cloth consumed
= 1.5 (30% of 30000 + 30% of 30000 + 40% of 10000
+ 90% of 10000)
= 46,500 m.
+ 90% of 10000)
= 46,500 m.
Q.No: 87
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 181 to 185: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
How many metres of high quality cloth is consumed by A-type shirts?
Solution:
Total quantity of high quality cloth consumed by A-type
shirts = (80% of 20000) × 1.5 = 24,000 m.
Q.No: 88
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 181 to 185: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?
Solution:
We only know the relationship between the type of shirt
and cloth used and type of shirt and dye used. We
cannot find any relationship between type of cloth and
dye used.
Q.No: 89
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 181 to 185: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
A company produces five types of shirts A, B, C, D and E using cloth of three qualities high, medium and low -, using dyes of three qualities high, medium and low. One shirt requires 1.5 m of cloth. The following table gives respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for C-type shirts to that used for D- type shirts?
Solution:
Q.No: 90
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country Fortune Land of companies A, B, C, D,
E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
What is the percentage increase in investment of B, C, D and E from year 1 to year 3?
Solution:
Q.No: 91
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country Fortune Land of companies A, B, C, D,
E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
What is the ratio of investments of E to F for the years 1 to 3?
Solution:
Q.No: 92
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country Fortune Land of companies A, B, C, D,
E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
What is Ds contribution as a percentage of total investments in year 2?
Solution:
Q.No: 93
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country Fortune Land of companies A, B, C, D,
E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
For which company is investment not increased from year 1 to year 3?
Solution:
As we can see from the table, none of the
investments increases from year 1 to 3.
Hence, none of these.
Q.No: 94
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The data given in the table shows the investment details in country Fortune Land of companies A, B, C, D,
E and F. Figures in the table are in US dollars in billions.
What is the percentage difference in investments of companies A, B, C and companies D, E, F in year 2?
Solution:
Q.No: 95
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives
data about certain coffee producers in India.
What is the maximum production capacity (in '000 tonnes) of Lipton for coffee?
Solution:
Q.No: 96
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives
data about certain coffee producers in India.
Which company out of the four companies mentioned above has the maximum unutilised capacity (in '000 tonnes)?
Solution:
Q.No: 97
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives
data about certain coffee producers in India.
What is the approximate total production capacity (in 000 tonnes) for coffee in India?
Solution:
Q.No: 98
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives
data about certain coffee producers in India.
The highest price for coffee per kilogram is for
Solution:
Q.No: 99
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 151 to 155: Answer the questions based on the following information, which gives
data about certain coffee producers in India.
What percent of the total market share (by sales value) is controlled by others?
Solution:
Q.No: 100
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:
The number of people employed in each month is:
Due to overrun in design, the design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4 and 5. The number of people working on design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month. (Due to improvement in coding technique, this stage was completed in months 6-8 only.)
Solution:
Q.No: 101
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:
The number of people employed in each month is:
With reference to the above question, what is the cost incurred in the new coding stage? (Under the new technique, 4 people work in the sixth month and 5 in the eighth.)
Solution:
Q.No: 102
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:
The number of people employed in each month is:
What is the difference in cost between the old and the new techniques?
Solution:
Q.No: 103
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:
The number of people employed in each month is:
Under the new technique, which stage of software development is most expensive for Mulayam Software Co.?
Solution:
Q.No: 104
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 156 to 160: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mulayam Software Co., before selling a package to its clients, follows the given schedule.
The number of people employed in each month is:
The number of people employed in each month is:
Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-month under the new technique?
Solution:
Q.No: 105
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and
Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
By what per cent was the total investment in the two districts more in 1996 as compared to 1995?
Solution:
Q.No: 106
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and
Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
The investment in electricity and thermal energy in 1995 in these two districts formed what per cent of the total investment made in that year?
Solution:
Q.No: 107
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and
Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
In Khammam district, the investment in which area in 1996 showed the highest percentage increase over the investment in that area in 1995?
Solution:
Q.No: 108
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and
Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
Approximately how many times was the total investment in Chittoor to the total investment in Khammam?
Solution:
Q.No: 109
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 161 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The amount of money invested (rupees in crores) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and
Khammam of Andhra Pradesh, is as follows.
If the total investment in Khammam shows the same rate of increase in 1997, as it had shown from 1995 to 1996, what approximately would be the total investment in Khammam in 1997?
Solution:
Q.No: 110
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 101 to 104: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
How many lays are used to produce yellow fabrics?
Solution:
Count only those lays for which any size of yellow
coloured fabric is produced.
They are lay number
1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 15, 21, 24, 25, 27
Hence, 14 is the answer.
They are lay number
1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 15, 21, 24, 25, 27
Hence, 14 is the answer.
Q.No: 111
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 101 to 104: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
How many lays are used to produce XXL fabrics?
Solution:
Count those lays for which extra-extra large fabric is
produced of any colours, i.e. count the lay numbers
for which at least one of XXL from 3 colours is nonzero.
They are lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 .
Hence, 16 is the answer.
They are lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 .
Hence, 16 is the answer.
Q.No: 112
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 101 to 104: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
How many lays are used to produce XL yellow or XL white fabrics?
Solution:
Again count lay number for which at least one of the
XXL from yellow and white are non-zero.
Lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27.
Hence, 15 is the answer.
Lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27.
Hence, 15 is the answer.
Q.No: 113
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 101 to 104: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes: M medium, L large, XL extra large and XXL extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order, have been produced?
Solution:
The varieties for which there is surplus gives the
answer. There are 4 such varieties.
Q.No: 114
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 105 to 108: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the
busiest 20 international airports in the world.
How many international airports of type A account for more than 40 million passengers?
Solution:
Put a decimal after the first two digit in the passengers
column and it will give the figure in millions.
In that case we have only 5 international airports of type A having more than 40 million passengers.
They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5, 9. Rest all A type airports are below 40 million.
In that case we have only 5 international airports of type A having more than 40 million passengers.
They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5, 9. Rest all A type airports are below 40 million.
Q.No: 115
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 105 to 108: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the
busiest 20 international airports in the world.
What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?
Solution:
Q.No: 116
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 105 to 108: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the
busiest 20 international airports in the world.
Of the five busiest airports, roughly, what percentage of passengers in handled by Heathrow Airport?
Solution:
Q.No: 117
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 105 to 108: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the
busiest 20 international airports in the world.
How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers?
Solution:
All the international airports handle more than 30 million
passengers. Among these only 6 airports are not
located in USA. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
Q.No: 118
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions based on the two graphs shown below.
Figure I shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software company between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period.
[Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the customers premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developers premise.]
Figure I shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software company between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period.
[Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the customers premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developers premise.]
Which work requires as many man-hours as that spent in coding?
Solution:
Man-hours spent in coding is 420 + 100 = 520.
Now going by options, we see (a) is the only option.
Now going by options, we see (a) is the only option.
Q.No: 119
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 131 to 134: Answer the questions independently.
At a village mela, the following six nautankis (plays) are scheduled as shown in the table below.
You wish to see all the six nautankis. Further, you wish to ensure that you get a lunch break from 12.30 p.m. to 1.30 p.m. Which of the following ways can you do this?
Solution:
Q.No: 120
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Mrs Ranga has three children and has difficulty remembering their ages and months of their birth.
The clue below may help her remember.
The boy, who was born in June, is 7 years old.
One of the children is 4 years old but it was not Anshuman.
Vaibhav is older than Suprita.
One of the children was born in September, but it was not Vaibhav.
Supritas birthday is in April.
The youngest child is only 2-year-old.
Based on the above clues, which one of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 121
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
The Bannerjees, the Sharmas, and the Pattabhiramans each have a tradition of eating Sunday
lunch as a family. Each family serves a special meal at a certain time of day. Each family has a
particular set of chinaware used for this meal. Use the clues below to answer the following question.
The Sharma family eats at noon.
The family that serves fried brinjal uses blue chinaware.
The Bannerjee family eats at 2 oclock.
The family that serves sambar does not use red chinaware.
The family that eats at 1 oclock serves fried brinjal.
The Pattabhiraman family does not use white chinaware.
The family that eats last likes makkai-ki-roti.
Which one of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 122
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
While Balbir had his back turned, a dog ran into his butcher shop, snatched a piece of meat off the
counter and ran out. Balbir was mad when he realised what had happened. He asked three other
shopkeepers, who had seen the dog, to describe it. The shopkeepers really did not want to help
Balbir. So each of them made a statement which contained one truth and one lie.
Shopkeeper number 1 said: The dog had black hair and a long tail.
Shopkeeper number 2 said: The dog had a short tail and wore a collar.
Shopkeeper number 3 said: The dog had white hair and no collar.
Based on the above statements, which of the following could be a correct description?
Solution:
Q.No: 123
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which
can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse
than for females in 2003.
Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better
in 2002 than in 2003.
Solution:
Q.No: 124
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which
can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number
of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males.
Statement B: In 2002, among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than
females.
Solution:
Q.No: 125
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which
can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Choose (1) if only A is true
Choose (2) if only B is true
Choose (3) if both A and B are true
Choose (4) if neither A nor B is true
Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002
to 2003.
Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among
females in 2003.
Solution:
Q.No: 126
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least
Solution:
Q.No: 127
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most
Solution:
Q.No: 128
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least
Solution:
Q.No: 129
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?
Solution:
Q.No: 130
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003.
Solution:
Since percentage of spam is Dec 2002 is higher than
June 2003, and the number of total e-mails received is
higher, hence number received in Dec 2002 is higher.
Q.No: 131
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March 2003.
Solution:
Cannot be determined as in Sept 2002 percentage is
lower as compared to March 2003, however the total
number of emails received in Sept 2003 is higher than
that in March 2002. Thus we cannot say anything.
Q.No: 132
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?
Solution:
It happened only once i.e; on 17-Jul-02
Q.No: 133
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Which of the following is true?
Solution:
From the table we can see that for issue dated,
04 June-03, the 2nd round issue has a lower maturity
and the competitive bids received are higher.
Q.No: 134
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Solution:
On 07-Nov 02, the value of non-competitive bids in the
2nd round is greater than that of 1st round. So option
(4) is not true.
Q.No: 135
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to 72: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall ranked school whose a) annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and b) median starting salary is at least $70,000. Which school will she select?
Solution:
By looking up the table, in University of California -
Berkeley median starting salary is $70,000 and annual
tuition fee is $18,788.
Q.No: 136
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 70 to 72: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
In terms of staring salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College?
Solution:
By looking up the table, the number of schools, uniformly
better than Dartmouth College is 2, namely Stanford
and New York University.
Q.No: 137
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)?
Solution:
8 universities namely, Stanford, Harvard, Pennsylvania,
Massachusetts, Chicago, Northwestern, Columbia and
Duke university have single digit ranking on atleast 3
of the 4 parameters.
Q.No: 138
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
What is the number of children of age 9 years of less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?
Solution:
Number of children with age ≤ 9 years = 45
Number of children with height ≤ 135 cm = 48
Therefore, the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm will be the common of the two (age ≤ 9 years and height ≤ 135 cm) = minimum(45, 48) = 45
Number of children with height ≤ 135 cm = 48
Therefore, the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm will be the common of the two (age ≤ 9 years and height ≤ 135 cm) = minimum(45, 48) = 45
Q.No: 139
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not weigh more than 48 kg?
Solution:
Number of children aged more than 10 years
= 100 - 60 = 40
Number of children taller than 150 cm = 100 - 75 = 25
Number of children with weight more than 48 kg = 100 - 91 = 9
These 9 children are surely included in the 25 children taller than 150 cm and more than 10 years of age because of the assumption given.
Thus, 25 - 9 = 16 children satisfy the given condition.
Number of children taller than 150 cm = 100 - 75 = 25
Number of children with weight more than 48 kg = 100 - 91 = 9
These 9 children are surely included in the 25 children taller than 150 cm and more than 10 years of age because of the assumption given.
Thus, 25 - 9 = 16 children satisfy the given condition.
Q.No: 140
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg.?
Solution:
Number of children older than 6 years but not
exceeding 12 years = 77 - 22 = 55
Number of children with weights not exceeding 38 kg = 33
These 33 children includes the 22 children with age not exceeding 6 years.
Therefore, the remaining (33 - 22) = 11 comes from the 55 children of ages older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years.
Therefore, 55 - 11 = 44 children satisfy the given condition.
Number of children with weights not exceeding 38 kg = 33
These 33 children includes the 22 children with age not exceeding 6 years.
Therefore, the remaining (33 - 22) = 11 comes from the 55 children of ages older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years.
Therefore, 55 - 11 = 44 children satisfy the given condition.
Q.No: 141
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 76 to 77: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
Which firm has the highest profitability?
Solution:
Profitability is defined as percentage of sales.
Approximately, Firm A has 20% profit, B has 16.66%,
C has 20% and D has approximately 25% profit.
Q.No: 142
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
If firm A acquires firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales) will they corner together?
Solution:
Q.No: 143
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 101 to 103: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?
Solution:
Is a sitter, its just simple addition and subtraction, FRG
+ CZE = 43.01 and US Total = 42.83
Hence difference in time = 43.01 42.83 = 0.18
Hence difference in time = 43.01 42.83 = 0.18
Q.No: 144
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 107 to 110: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kg) consumes 100 kg of limestone and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25% and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (per cent of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to
Solution:
Q.No: 145
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 107 to 110: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (per cent of selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03
Solution:
Q.No: 146
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 107 to 110: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?
Solution:
You only need to see the particular row in the table for
the given options and for Power it experienced
continuous rise.
Q.No: 147
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 107 to 110: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?
Solution:
Again for timber and wages experienced declined
only once for the given period.
Q.No: 148
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 111 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 32 nations in all the four lists which have lower birth rates than Philippines. So they are ranked higher than it. Now, three nations namely Philippines, Thailand and Colombia have identical birth rates and death rates (34 and 10 respectively). Hence, they are ranked 33rd in the consolidated list.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 32 nations in all the four lists which have lower birth rates than Philippines. So they are ranked higher than it. Now, three nations namely Philippines, Thailand and Colombia have identical birth rates and death rates (34 and 10 respectively). Hence, they are ranked 33rd in the consolidated list.
Q.No: 149
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 111 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
The rank of Spain is 17th overall, tied alongwith Yugoslavia. So the next country will be ranked 19th in the list. Taiwan is ranked 28th in the list. Hence, there will be (28 19) = 9 countries between Taiwan and Spain.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
The rank of Spain is 17th overall, tied alongwith Yugoslavia. So the next country will be ranked 19th in the list. Taiwan is ranked 28th in the list. Hence, there will be (28 19) = 9 countries between Taiwan and Spain.
Q.No: 150
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 111 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
In the consolidated list, there are 36 countries whose birth rate doesnt exceed 35. Now looking at the countries with birth rate of 36, we see that on the basis of lower death rates, Venezuela is placed at 37th position.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
In the consolidated list, there are 36 countries whose birth rate doesnt exceed 35. Now looking at the countries with birth rate of 36, we see that on the basis of lower death rates, Venezuela is placed at 37th position.
Q.No: 151
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 111 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the following table.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 9 countries in Asia that are ranked lower than every country of South America, namely Iran, Vietnam, Korea(DPRK), Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Syria, Iraq and Afghanistan. Out of these nations, only Afghanistan is ranked below all the countries from Africa. Remaining 8 countries satisfy the given condition.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 9 countries in Asia that are ranked lower than every country of South America, namely Iran, Vietnam, Korea(DPRK), Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Syria, Iraq and Afghanistan. Out of these nations, only Afghanistan is ranked below all the countries from Africa. Remaining 8 countries satisfy the given condition.
Q.No: 152
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 124 to 126: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given below:
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
The two states which achieved the largest increases in sex ratio over the period 1901-2001 are
Solution:
Increase of HP is from 884 to 970, i.e. 86
Increase of Kerala is from 1004 to 1058, i.e. 54
Increase of Punjab is from 832 to 874, i.e. 42
Increase of Assam is 919 to 932, i.e. 13
Increase of J & K is 882 to 900, i.e. 18
Therefore, HP and Kerala are highest.
Increase of Kerala is from 1004 to 1058, i.e. 54
Increase of Punjab is from 832 to 874, i.e. 42
Increase of Assam is 919 to 932, i.e. 13
Increase of J & K is 882 to 900, i.e. 18
Therefore, HP and Kerala are highest.
Q.No: 153
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 124 to 126: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given below:
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
Among the states which have a sex ratio exceeding 1000 in 1901, the sharpest decline over the period 1901-2001 was registered in the state of
Solution:
Goa (1091 to 960) i.e. 131
Tamil Nadu (1044 to 986) i.e. 58
Bihar (1061 to 921) i.e. 140
Orissa ( 1037 to 972) i.e. 65
Therefore, Bihar should the sharpest decline over the period 1901 2001.
Tamil Nadu (1044 to 986) i.e. 58
Bihar (1061 to 921) i.e. 140
Orissa ( 1037 to 972) i.e. 65
Therefore, Bihar should the sharpest decline over the period 1901 2001.
Q.No: 154
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 124 to 126: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given below:
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements is NOT correct?
Solution:
Females outnumbering males means that the sex ratio
is more than 1000.
Option (1), (2), and (4) are true.
Option (1), (2), and (4) are true.
Q.No: 155
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 133 to 137: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Which one among the following must have two sources?
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
A and D have only one source since they have only one wrong answer each.
C may have copied from only one source i.e. I and hence, only B has two sources.
A and D have only one source since they have only one wrong answer each.
C may have copied from only one source i.e. I and hence, only B has two sources.
Q.No: 156
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 133 to 137: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?
I. A, D and G II. E and H
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
A, D and G have one distinct wrong answer and no blank answers. So they must have the same source. E and H also have a common wrong answer and no blanks.
Hence, both the groups had identical sources.
A, D and G have one distinct wrong answer and no blank answers. So they must have the same source. E and H also have a common wrong answer and no blanks.
Hence, both the groups had identical sources.
Q.No: 157
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 133 to 137: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer-keys before C could make his answer-key?
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
I did it before C since 27 is the wrong choice for I. Similarly, A, D and E made keys before C. Hence, 4 people made their keys before C.
I did it before C since 27 is the wrong choice for I. Similarly, A, D and E made keys before C. Hence, 4 people made their keys before C.
Q.No: 158
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 133 to 137: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Both G and H were sources to
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
Both G and H cant be sources to any of F, B or I and hence, (4) is the correct option.
Both G and H cant be sources to any of F, B or I and hence, (4) is the correct option.
Q.No: 159
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 133 to 137: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer-key in the following manner. They obtain the answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her sources. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the sources answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.
The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
F introduced wrong answer to question 14, because nobody else has done question 14 wrong.
F introduced wrong answer to question 14, because nobody else has done question 14 wrong.
Q.No: 160
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for question 138: Answer the question on the basis of the following information.
Seventy percent of the employees in a multinational corporation have VCD players, 75% have microwave ovens, 80% have AC'S and 85% have washing machines. At least what percentage of employees has all four gadgets?
Solution:
VCD = 70%, Microwave = 75%, ACS = 80%, Washing
M/c = 85%
Least percentage of employees having both VCD and Microwave = 70 + 75 100 = 45%
Least percentage having all three VCD, Microwave, ACS = 45 + 80 100 = 25%
Least percentage having all four = 25% + 85% 100% = 10%
Least percentage of employees having both VCD and Microwave = 70 + 75 100 = 45%
Least percentage having all three VCD, Microwave, ACS = 45 + 80 100 = 25%
Least percentage having all four = 25% + 85% 100% = 10%
Q.No: 161
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
The total expenditure is required to be kept within Rs. 700 lakh by cutting the expenditure on administration equally in all the years. What will be the percentage cut for 1989?
Solution:
Q.No: 162
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
If the length of line to be laid each year is in proportion to the estimated cost for material and labour, what fraction of the total length is proposed to be completed by the third year?
Solution:
Q.No: 163
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
What is the approximate ratio of the total cost of materials for all the years to the total labour cost?
Solution:
Q.No: 164
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
If the cost of materials rises by 5% each year from 1990 onwards, by how much will the estimated cost rise?
Solution:
Q.No: 165
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
It is found at the end of 1990, that the entire amount estimated for the project has been spent. If for 1991, the actual amount spent was equal to that which was estimated, by what percent (approximately) has the actual expenditure exceeded the estimated expenditure?
Solution:
Q.No: 166
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 111-116 : The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. Lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.
After preparing the estimate, the provision for contingencies is felt inadequate and is therefore doubled. By what percent does the total estimate increase?
Solution:
Q.No: 167
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 117-121 : The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region. The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Which region-colour combination accounts for the highest percentage of sales to stock?
Solution:
From table 3 it can be seen that the highest percentage
of sales to stock is 74% for the Region 4 and colour
Brown.
Q.No: 168
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 117-121 : The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region. The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Which colour is the most popular in region1?
Solution:
From Table 4 it can be seen that in region 1, the
maximum percentage of saris were sold of Brown
colour viz.22% and hence this is the most popular
colour in this region.
Q.No: 169
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 117-121 : The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region. The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Which region sold the maximum percentage of magenta saris out of the total sales of magenta saris?
Solution:
This can be answered from the fifth table. It can be
seen that Region 1 has sold the maximum percentage
of magenta saris out of its total magenta saris sold
(viz.44%)
Q.No: 170
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 117-121 : The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region. The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Out of its total sales, which region sold the minimum percentage of green saris?
Solution:
This can be answered from the fourth table. It can be
seen that Region 6 has sold the least percentage of
green saris out of its total sale (viz.14%)
Q.No: 171
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 117-121 : The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region. The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
In which region is the maximum percentage of blue saris sold?
Solution:
This can be answered from the fifth table. It can be
seen that the percentage of blue saris sold is maximum
for Region 2 viz. (33%)
Q.No: 172
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 122 to 125 : The table below gives the achievements of Agricultural Development Programmes from 1983 – 84 to 1988 – 89. Study the following table and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
The consumption of chemical fertilizer per hectare of gross cropped area is lowest for the year
Solution:
Q.No: 173
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 122 to 125 : The table below gives the achievements of Agricultural Development Programmes from 1983 – 84 to 1988 – 89. Study the following table and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
In which year does the area cropped under high yielding varieties show a decline for the maximum number of crops?
Solution:
It can be seen that in 88-89, area cropped shows a
decline for 3 of the crops viz.wheat, jowar and bajra.
This is the maximum number of crops for any year.
This is the maximum number of crops for any year.
Q.No: 174
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 122 to 125 : The table below gives the achievements of Agricultural Development Programmes from 1983 – 84 to 1988 – 89. Study the following table and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
How much area, in million hectares, was brought under irrigation during the year 1986-87?
Solution:
The amount area brought under irrigation for Major
and Medium in 86-87 = (24 – 23.2) = 0.8
The amount area brought under irrigation for Minor in 86-87 = (34.2 – 32.77) = 1.43
Hence total area brought under irrigation in 86-87 = 0.8+1.43 = 2.23 million hectares
The amount area brought under irrigation for Minor in 86-87 = (34.2 – 32.77) = 1.43
Hence total area brought under irrigation in 86-87 = 0.8+1.43 = 2.23 million hectares
Q.No: 175
Test Name : CAT Paper 1990
Questions 122 to 125 : The table below gives the achievements of Agricultural Development Programmes from 1983 – 84 to 1988 – 89. Study the following table and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
It is possible that a part of the minor irrigated area is brought under major and medium areas. In which year has this definitely happened?
Solution:
It can be seen that only in the year 1987-88, the area
under minor irrigated area has decreased (from 34.2
to 34). Hence it is obvious that this area should have
been transferred to major and medium irrigated areas.
Q.No: 176
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2020 Slot-3
Question Numbers (39 to 42): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
Among the following days, the largest fraction of orders booked on which day was lost?
Solution:
Q.No: 177
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2020 Slot-3
Question Numbers (39 to 42): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
On which of the following days was the number of orders booked the highest?
Solution:
Q.No: 178
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2020 Slot-3
Question Numbers (39 to 42): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
The delivery ratio for a given day is defined as the ratio of the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the next day to the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the second day after booking. On which of the following days, was the delivery ratio the highest?
Solution:
Q.No: 179
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2020 Slot-3
Question Numbers (39 to 42): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
The average time taken to deliver orders booked on a particular day is computed as follows. Let the number of orders delivered the next day be x and the number of orders delivered the day after be y. Then the average time to deliver order is (x+2y)/(x+y). On which of the following days was the average time taken to deliver orders booked the least?
Solution:
Q.No: 180
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2022 Slot-2
Question Numbers (30 to 34): The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over
three years - 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
Considering all three years, which company had the highest annual profit?
Solution:
Let us calculate the profit for all the three years for the four companies:
A = 90 + 90 + 60 – 85 – 65 – 60 = 30
B = 100 + 90 + 30 – 75 – 40 – 30 = 75
C = 25 + 70 + 100 – 20 – 60 – 30 = 85
D = 50 + 20 + 70 – 40 – 50 – 70 = –20
So the highest profit was for Company C.
Let us calculate the profit for all the three years for the four companies:
A = 90 + 90 + 60 – 85 – 65 – 60 = 30
B = 100 + 90 + 30 – 75 – 40 – 30 = 75
C = 25 + 70 + 100 – 20 – 60 – 30 = 85
D = 50 + 20 + 70 – 40 – 50 – 70 = –20
So the highest profit was for Company C.
Q.No: 181
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2022 Slot-2
Question Numbers (30 to 34): The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over
three years - 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
Which of the four companies experienced the highest annual loss in any of the years?
Solution:
A company will be at a loss only if Cost is higher than revenue.
We can see from the table that this happens only in the case of Company D in 2020.
A company will be at a loss only if Cost is higher than revenue.
We can see from the table that this happens only in the case of Company D in 2020.
Q.No: 182
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2022 Slot-2
Question Numbers (30 to 34): The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over
three years - 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The ratio of a company’s annual profit to its annual costs is a measure of its performance. Which of the four companies had the lowest value of this ratio in 2019?
Solution:
The ratio of each company’s annual profit to its annual costs in 2019:
A = 5/85 = 1/17; B = 25/75 = 1/3; C = 5/20 = 1/4; D = 10/40 = 1/4
Hence, the lowest value of this ratio is for Company A.
The ratio of each company’s annual profit to its annual costs in 2019:
A = 5/85 = 1/17; B = 25/75 = 1/3; C = 5/20 = 1/4; D = 10/40 = 1/4
Hence, the lowest value of this ratio is for Company A.
Q.No: 183
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2022 Slot-2
Question Numbers (30 to 34): The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over
three years - 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The total number of employees lost in 2019 and 2020 was the least for:
Solution:
Q.No: 184
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2022 Slot-2
Question Numbers (30 to 34): The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over
three years - 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example, in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company is defined as its revenue minus its costs.
The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined the company during the year.
Profit per employee is the ratio of a company’s profit to its employee strength. For this purpose, the employee strength in a year is the average of the employee strength at the beginning of that year and the beginning of the next year. In 2020, which of the four companies had the highest profit per employee?
Solution:
Q.No: 185
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 39): Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these
firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
For which firm(s) can the amounts raised by them be concluded with certainty in each year?
Solution:
Q.No: 186
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 39): Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these
firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
What best can be concluded about the total amount of money raised in 2015?
Solution:
Q.No: 187
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 39): Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these
firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
What is the largest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised in 2013?
Solution:
Q.No: 188
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 39): Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these
firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
If Elavalaki raised Rs. 3 crores in 2013, then what is the smallest possible total amount of money (in Rs. crores) that could have been raised by all the companies in 2012?
Solution:
Q.No: 189
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 39): Odsville has five firms – Alfloo, Bzygoo, Czechy, Drjbna and Elavalaki. Each of these
firms was founded in some year and also closed down a few years later.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
Each firm raised Rs. 1 crore in its first and last year of existence. The amount each firm raised every year increased until it reached a maximum, and then decreased until the firm closed down. No firm raised the same amount of money in two consecutive years. Each annual increase and decrease was either by Rs. 1 crore or by Rs. 2 crores.
The table below provides partial information about the five firms.
If the total amount of money raised in 2014 is Rs. 12 crores, then which of the following is not possible?
Solution:
Q.No: 190
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 3
Question Numbers (30 to 34): In a coaching class, some
students register online, and some others register offline.
No student registers both online and offline; hence the
total registration number is the sum of online and offline
registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these
registration numbers for the five months – January to
May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum,
median registration numbers of these five months,
separately for online, offline and total number of
registrations. The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Which pair of months definitely had the same total
number of registrations?
I. January and April
II. February and May
Solution:
It can be observed that January and April had 120 total registrations each and February and May had 130 total registrations each. Hence, both I and II are correct.
It can be observed that January and April had 120 total registrations each and February and May had 130 total registrations each. Hence, both I and II are correct.
Q.No: 191
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 3
Question Numbers (30 to 34): In a coaching class, some
students register online, and some others register offline.
No student registers both online and offline; hence the
total registration number is the sum of online and offline
registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these
registration numbers for the five months – January to
May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum,
median registration numbers of these five months,
separately for online, offline and total number of
registrations. The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
What was the total number of registrations in April?
Solution:
Total number of registrations in April = 120
Total number of registrations in April = 120
Q.No: 192
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 3
Question Numbers (30 to 34): In a coaching class, some
students register online, and some others register offline.
No student registers both online and offline; hence the
total registration number is the sum of online and offline
registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these
registration numbers for the five months – January to
May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum,
median registration numbers of these five months,
separately for online, offline and total number of
registrations. The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Which of the following statements can be true?
I. The number of offline registrations was the
smallest in May.
II. The total number of registrations was the smallest
in February.
Solution:
The number of offline registrations in May was the smallest, is true.
Total number of registrations in February was the smallest, is false.
Hence, only statement I is true.
The number of offline registrations in May was the smallest, is true.
Total number of registrations in February was the smallest, is false.
Hence, only statement I is true.
Q.No: 193
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 3
Question Numbers (30 to 34): In a coaching class, some
students register online, and some others register offline.
No student registers both online and offline; hence the
total registration number is the sum of online and offline
registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these
registration numbers for the five months – January to
May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum,
median registration numbers of these five months,
separately for online, offline and total number of
registrations. The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
What was the number of online registrations in January?
Solution:
Online registrations in January = 40
Online registrations in January = 40
Q.No: 194
Test Name : CAT Actual Paper 2023 Slot 3
Question Numbers (30 to 34): In a coaching class, some
students register online, and some others register offline.
No student registers both online and offline; hence the
total registration number is the sum of online and offline
registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these
registration numbers for the five months – January to
May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum,
median registration numbers of these five months,
separately for online, offline and total number of
registrations. The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
What best can be concluded about the number of offline registrations in February?
Solution:
We can see from the table that the number of offline registrations in February was 50.
We can see from the table that the number of offline registrations in February was 50.
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By referring to the above table,
Per Capita Income is highest for the year 1989 90 ≈ 5319.
Per Capita Income is highest for the year 1989 90 ≈ 5319.
Solution:
Solution:
From the table given for Q158, it is apparent that the
rate of increase of population is lowest for the year
1985-86 viz.1.35%.
Solution:
Among the years given in the answer choices, the
increase in per capita income compared to previous
year is highest for the year 1985 - 86.
Solution:
Thus, we can see that Solid Fuels and Petroleum together constitute more than 60% of total energy in both World and
Asia for the given period.
Solution:
As seen from the above table, Petroleum is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand increases during 1990-2000 and decreases during 2000-2010 for both World and Asia.
Solution:
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Again referring to the above table we can see that the
percentage growth rate is maximum for secondary
level books viz.125%.
Solution:
It can be seen from the given table that though primary
level books have shown a consistent growth, it has
declined in the year 1978. On the other hand even
Secondary and Higher secondary level books have
shown a consistent increase except for the year 1977
when it had declined. But the graduate level books
have shown a consistent growth over the period.
Solution:
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From the above table, it is clear that the amount of
reserves at the end of 1994 = (535 + 400) = Rs.935 lakh.
Solution:
It can be seen that the market share of CO in Kolkata has
halved in 1994. None of the other products show such a
drastic decrease in any city. Hence, percentage
decrease in market share = 50%.
Solution:
Total requirement of cloth
= Total number of shirts × Cloth required per shirt
= (20 + 30 + 30 + 10 + 10) × 1000 × 1.5
= 1,50,000 m.
= (20 + 30 + 30 + 10 + 10) × 1000 × 1.5
= 1,50,000 m.
Solution:
Total low quality cloth consumed
= 1.5 (30% of 30000 + 30% of 30000 + 40% of 10000
+ 90% of 10000)
= 46,500 m.
+ 90% of 10000)
= 46,500 m.
Solution:
Total quantity of high quality cloth consumed by A-type
shirts = (80% of 20000) × 1.5 = 24,000 m.
Solution:
We only know the relationship between the type of shirt
and cloth used and type of shirt and dye used. We
cannot find any relationship between type of cloth and
dye used.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
As we can see from the table, none of the
investments increases from year 1 to 3.
Hence, none of these.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Count only those lays for which any size of yellow
coloured fabric is produced.
They are lay number
1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 15, 21, 24, 25, 27
Hence, 14 is the answer.
They are lay number
1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 15, 21, 24, 25, 27
Hence, 14 is the answer.
Solution:
Count those lays for which extra-extra large fabric is
produced of any colours, i.e. count the lay numbers
for which at least one of XXL from 3 colours is nonzero.
They are lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 .
Hence, 16 is the answer.
They are lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 .
Hence, 16 is the answer.
Solution:
Again count lay number for which at least one of the
XXL from yellow and white are non-zero.
Lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27.
Hence, 15 is the answer.
Lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27.
Hence, 15 is the answer.
Solution:
The varieties for which there is surplus gives the
answer. There are 4 such varieties.
Solution:
Put a decimal after the first two digit in the passengers
column and it will give the figure in millions.
In that case we have only 5 international airports of type A having more than 40 million passengers.
They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5, 9. Rest all A type airports are below 40 million.
In that case we have only 5 international airports of type A having more than 40 million passengers.
They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5, 9. Rest all A type airports are below 40 million.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
All the international airports handle more than 30 million
passengers. Among these only 6 airports are not
located in USA. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
Solution:
Man-hours spent in coding is 420 + 100 = 520.
Now going by options, we see (a) is the only option.
Now going by options, we see (a) is the only option.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Since percentage of spam is Dec 2002 is higher than
June 2003, and the number of total e-mails received is
higher, hence number received in Dec 2002 is higher.
Solution:
Cannot be determined as in Sept 2002 percentage is
lower as compared to March 2003, however the total
number of emails received in Sept 2003 is higher than
that in March 2002. Thus we cannot say anything.
Solution:
It happened only once i.e; on 17-Jul-02
Solution:
From the table we can see that for issue dated,
04 June-03, the 2nd round issue has a lower maturity
and the competitive bids received are higher.
Solution:
On 07-Nov 02, the value of non-competitive bids in the
2nd round is greater than that of 1st round. So option
(4) is not true.
Solution:
By looking up the table, in University of California -
Berkeley median starting salary is $70,000 and annual
tuition fee is $18,788.
Solution:
By looking up the table, the number of schools, uniformly
better than Dartmouth College is 2, namely Stanford
and New York University.
Solution:
8 universities namely, Stanford, Harvard, Pennsylvania,
Massachusetts, Chicago, Northwestern, Columbia and
Duke university have single digit ranking on atleast 3
of the 4 parameters.
Solution:
Number of children with age ≤ 9 years = 45
Number of children with height ≤ 135 cm = 48
Therefore, the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm will be the common of the two (age ≤ 9 years and height ≤ 135 cm) = minimum(45, 48) = 45
Number of children with height ≤ 135 cm = 48
Therefore, the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm will be the common of the two (age ≤ 9 years and height ≤ 135 cm) = minimum(45, 48) = 45
Solution:
Number of children aged more than 10 years
= 100 - 60 = 40
Number of children taller than 150 cm = 100 - 75 = 25
Number of children with weight more than 48 kg = 100 - 91 = 9
These 9 children are surely included in the 25 children taller than 150 cm and more than 10 years of age because of the assumption given.
Thus, 25 - 9 = 16 children satisfy the given condition.
Number of children taller than 150 cm = 100 - 75 = 25
Number of children with weight more than 48 kg = 100 - 91 = 9
These 9 children are surely included in the 25 children taller than 150 cm and more than 10 years of age because of the assumption given.
Thus, 25 - 9 = 16 children satisfy the given condition.
Solution:
Number of children older than 6 years but not
exceeding 12 years = 77 - 22 = 55
Number of children with weights not exceeding 38 kg = 33
These 33 children includes the 22 children with age not exceeding 6 years.
Therefore, the remaining (33 - 22) = 11 comes from the 55 children of ages older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years.
Therefore, 55 - 11 = 44 children satisfy the given condition.
Number of children with weights not exceeding 38 kg = 33
These 33 children includes the 22 children with age not exceeding 6 years.
Therefore, the remaining (33 - 22) = 11 comes from the 55 children of ages older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years.
Therefore, 55 - 11 = 44 children satisfy the given condition.
Solution:
Profitability is defined as percentage of sales.
Approximately, Firm A has 20% profit, B has 16.66%,
C has 20% and D has approximately 25% profit.
Solution:
Solution:
Is a sitter, its just simple addition and subtraction, FRG
+ CZE = 43.01 and US Total = 42.83
Hence difference in time = 43.01 42.83 = 0.18
Hence difference in time = 43.01 42.83 = 0.18
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
You only need to see the particular row in the table for
the given options and for Power it experienced
continuous rise.
Solution:
Again for timber and wages experienced declined
only once for the given period.
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 32 nations in all the four lists which have lower birth rates than Philippines. So they are ranked higher than it. Now, three nations namely Philippines, Thailand and Colombia have identical birth rates and death rates (34 and 10 respectively). Hence, they are ranked 33rd in the consolidated list.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 32 nations in all the four lists which have lower birth rates than Philippines. So they are ranked higher than it. Now, three nations namely Philippines, Thailand and Colombia have identical birth rates and death rates (34 and 10 respectively). Hence, they are ranked 33rd in the consolidated list.
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
The rank of Spain is 17th overall, tied alongwith Yugoslavia. So the next country will be ranked 19th in the list. Taiwan is ranked 28th in the list. Hence, there will be (28 19) = 9 countries between Taiwan and Spain.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
The rank of Spain is 17th overall, tied alongwith Yugoslavia. So the next country will be ranked 19th in the list. Taiwan is ranked 28th in the list. Hence, there will be (28 19) = 9 countries between Taiwan and Spain.
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
In the consolidated list, there are 36 countries whose birth rate doesnt exceed 35. Now looking at the countries with birth rate of 36, we see that on the basis of lower death rates, Venezuela is placed at 37th position.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
In the consolidated list, there are 36 countries whose birth rate doesnt exceed 35. Now looking at the countries with birth rate of 36, we see that on the basis of lower death rates, Venezuela is placed at 37th position.
Solution:
The table consists of sorting the different nations according to
the birth rate and death rate. The only thing to remember is that
if two countries have same rank (3), then next country will get
(5) rank. So
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 9 countries in Asia that are ranked lower than every country of South America, namely Iran, Vietnam, Korea(DPRK), Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Syria, Iraq and Afghanistan. Out of these nations, only Afghanistan is ranked below all the countries from Africa. Remaining 8 countries satisfy the given condition.
rank of Philippines is 33,
rank of Spain is 17,
rank of Taiwan is 28.
In-between total 9 countries.
In consolidated list 37th country is Venezuela.
In last question, we have to check last country of South America (42, 11) and last country of Africa (50, 28). In-between there are 8 countries of Asia.
There are 9 countries in Asia that are ranked lower than every country of South America, namely Iran, Vietnam, Korea(DPRK), Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Syria, Iraq and Afghanistan. Out of these nations, only Afghanistan is ranked below all the countries from Africa. Remaining 8 countries satisfy the given condition.
Solution:
Increase of HP is from 884 to 970, i.e. 86
Increase of Kerala is from 1004 to 1058, i.e. 54
Increase of Punjab is from 832 to 874, i.e. 42
Increase of Assam is 919 to 932, i.e. 13
Increase of J & K is 882 to 900, i.e. 18
Therefore, HP and Kerala are highest.
Increase of Kerala is from 1004 to 1058, i.e. 54
Increase of Punjab is from 832 to 874, i.e. 42
Increase of Assam is 919 to 932, i.e. 13
Increase of J & K is 882 to 900, i.e. 18
Therefore, HP and Kerala are highest.
Solution:
Goa (1091 to 960) i.e. 131
Tamil Nadu (1044 to 986) i.e. 58
Bihar (1061 to 921) i.e. 140
Orissa ( 1037 to 972) i.e. 65
Therefore, Bihar should the sharpest decline over the period 1901 2001.
Tamil Nadu (1044 to 986) i.e. 58
Bihar (1061 to 921) i.e. 140
Orissa ( 1037 to 972) i.e. 65
Therefore, Bihar should the sharpest decline over the period 1901 2001.
Solution:
Females outnumbering males means that the sex ratio
is more than 1000.
Option (1), (2), and (4) are true.
Option (1), (2), and (4) are true.
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
A and D have only one source since they have only one wrong answer each.
C may have copied from only one source i.e. I and hence, only B has two sources.
A and D have only one source since they have only one wrong answer each.
C may have copied from only one source i.e. I and hence, only B has two sources.
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
A, D and G have one distinct wrong answer and no blank answers. So they must have the same source. E and H also have a common wrong answer and no blanks.
Hence, both the groups had identical sources.
A, D and G have one distinct wrong answer and no blank answers. So they must have the same source. E and H also have a common wrong answer and no blanks.
Hence, both the groups had identical sources.
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
I did it before C since 27 is the wrong choice for I. Similarly, A, D and E made keys before C. Hence, 4 people made their keys before C.
I did it before C since 27 is the wrong choice for I. Similarly, A, D and E made keys before C. Hence, 4 people made their keys before C.
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
Both G and H cant be sources to any of F, B or I and hence, (4) is the correct option.
Both G and H cant be sources to any of F, B or I and hence, (4) is the correct option.
Solution:
If a person copies from one source, he must have the same
blank answers as the source and exactly one wrong answer
more than the source (as the copier has introduced one wrong
answer on his own). If the person copies from two sources,
the distinct wrong answers from the two sources would be
left blank by the copier and the same wrong answers in the
two sources would be copied as it is.
F introduced wrong answer to question 14, because nobody else has done question 14 wrong.
F introduced wrong answer to question 14, because nobody else has done question 14 wrong.
Solution:
VCD = 70%, Microwave = 75%, ACS = 80%, Washing
M/c = 85%
Least percentage of employees having both VCD and Microwave = 70 + 75 100 = 45%
Least percentage having all three VCD, Microwave, ACS = 45 + 80 100 = 25%
Least percentage having all four = 25% + 85% 100% = 10%
Least percentage of employees having both VCD and Microwave = 70 + 75 100 = 45%
Least percentage having all three VCD, Microwave, ACS = 45 + 80 100 = 25%
Least percentage having all four = 25% + 85% 100% = 10%
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
From table 3 it can be seen that the highest percentage
of sales to stock is 74% for the Region 4 and colour
Brown.
Solution:
From Table 4 it can be seen that in region 1, the
maximum percentage of saris were sold of Brown
colour viz.22% and hence this is the most popular
colour in this region.
Solution:
This can be answered from the fifth table. It can be
seen that Region 1 has sold the maximum percentage
of magenta saris out of its total magenta saris sold
(viz.44%)
Solution:
This can be answered from the fourth table. It can be
seen that Region 6 has sold the least percentage of
green saris out of its total sale (viz.14%)
Solution:
This can be answered from the fifth table. It can be
seen that the percentage of blue saris sold is maximum
for Region 2 viz. (33%)
Solution:
Solution:
It can be seen that in 88-89, area cropped shows a
decline for 3 of the crops viz.wheat, jowar and bajra.
This is the maximum number of crops for any year.
This is the maximum number of crops for any year.
Solution:
The amount area brought under irrigation for Major
and Medium in 86-87 = (24 – 23.2) = 0.8
The amount area brought under irrigation for Minor in 86-87 = (34.2 – 32.77) = 1.43
Hence total area brought under irrigation in 86-87 = 0.8+1.43 = 2.23 million hectares
The amount area brought under irrigation for Minor in 86-87 = (34.2 – 32.77) = 1.43
Hence total area brought under irrigation in 86-87 = 0.8+1.43 = 2.23 million hectares
Solution:
It can be seen that only in the year 1987-88, the area
under minor irrigated area has decreased (from 34.2
to 34). Hence it is obvious that this area should have
been transferred to major and medium irrigated areas.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Let us calculate the profit for all the three years for the four companies:
A = 90 + 90 + 60 – 85 – 65 – 60 = 30
B = 100 + 90 + 30 – 75 – 40 – 30 = 75
C = 25 + 70 + 100 – 20 – 60 – 30 = 85
D = 50 + 20 + 70 – 40 – 50 – 70 = –20
So the highest profit was for Company C.
Let us calculate the profit for all the three years for the four companies:
A = 90 + 90 + 60 – 85 – 65 – 60 = 30
B = 100 + 90 + 30 – 75 – 40 – 30 = 75
C = 25 + 70 + 100 – 20 – 60 – 30 = 85
D = 50 + 20 + 70 – 40 – 50 – 70 = –20
So the highest profit was for Company C.
Solution:
A company will be at a loss only if Cost is higher than revenue.
We can see from the table that this happens only in the case of Company D in 2020.
A company will be at a loss only if Cost is higher than revenue.
We can see from the table that this happens only in the case of Company D in 2020.
Solution:
The ratio of each company’s annual profit to its annual costs in 2019:
A = 5/85 = 1/17; B = 25/75 = 1/3; C = 5/20 = 1/4; D = 10/40 = 1/4
Hence, the lowest value of this ratio is for Company A.
The ratio of each company’s annual profit to its annual costs in 2019:
A = 5/85 = 1/17; B = 25/75 = 1/3; C = 5/20 = 1/4; D = 10/40 = 1/4
Hence, the lowest value of this ratio is for Company A.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
It can be observed that January and April had 120 total registrations each and February and May had 130 total registrations each. Hence, both I and II are correct.
It can be observed that January and April had 120 total registrations each and February and May had 130 total registrations each. Hence, both I and II are correct.
Solution:
Total number of registrations in April = 120
Total number of registrations in April = 120
Solution:
The number of offline registrations in May was the smallest, is true.
Total number of registrations in February was the smallest, is false.
Hence, only statement I is true.
The number of offline registrations in May was the smallest, is true.
Total number of registrations in February was the smallest, is false.
Hence, only statement I is true.
Solution:
Online registrations in January = 40
Online registrations in January = 40
Solution:
We can see from the table that the number of offline registrations in February was 50.
We can see from the table that the number of offline registrations in February was 50.
