Analytical
Q.No: 1
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?
Solution:
Q.No: 2
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?
Solution:
Q.No: 3
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?
Solution:
Q.No: 4
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?
Solution:
Q.No: 5
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?
Solution:
Q.No: 6
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?
Solution:
Q.No: 7
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?
i. At least one
ii. At most two
Solution:
Q.No: 8
Test Name : CAT Paper 2004
Directions for questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
Solution:
Q.No: 9
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
Solution:
Q.No: 10
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
Solution:
Q.No: 11
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
Solution:
Q.No: 12
Test Name : CAT Paper 2005
Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel
Industry.
Solution:
Q.No: 13
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:
(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.
(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.
What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house?
Solution:
Q.No: 14
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:
(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.
(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.
Which is the second tallest house?
Solution:
Q.No: 15
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:
(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.
(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.
(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.
(iv) The houses are of different heights.
(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.
(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.
(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.
(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.
(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.
(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.
What is the colour of the tallest house?
Solution:
Q.No: 16
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:
Solution:
Q.No: 17
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is (are):
Solution:
Q.No: 18
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:
Solution:
Q.No: 19
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 35 to 38: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in State I and two matches in Stage II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage I and Stage II are as given below.
Stage-I: · Once team won all the three matches.
· Two teams lost all the matches.
· D lost to A but won against C and F.
· E lost to B but won against C and F.
· B lost at least one match.
· F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II: · The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
· Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
· Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):
Solution:
Q.No: 20
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetans total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The return for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e, it is higher at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that day?
Solution:
Q.No: 21
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetans total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The return for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
Which one of the following statements is always true?
Solution:
Q.No: 22
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetans total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The return for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
On a boom day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and dpeaks at the close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
Solution:
Q.No: 23
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
One day, two other traders. Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares of XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am. 11 am and 12 noon, and selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy of buying shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the shares for all the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the close of the day the following was observed.
i. Abdul lost money in the transactions.
ii. Both Dane and Emily made profits.
iii. There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.
iv. Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price
i. Abdul lost money in the transactions.
ii. Both Dane and Emily made profits.
iii. There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.
iv. Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price
Directions for Questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetans total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The return for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
Share price was at its highest at
Solution:
Q.No: 24
Test Name : CAT Paper 2008
Directions for Questions 43 to 47: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetans total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The return for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.
Which of the following is necessarily false?
Solution:
Q.No: 25
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q171 to 175, Use the following information:
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is:
Solution:
Below 100, no test would be cheaper.
Below 100, no test would be cheaper.
Q.No: 26
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q171 to 175, Use the following information:
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
If there are 120 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:
Solution:
If there are 120 widgets, he should go for test I as it is cheaper.
If there are 120 widgets, he should go for test I as it is cheaper.
Q.No: 27
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q171 to 175, Use the following information:
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash:
Solution:
It is clear from the table that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper.
It is clear from the table that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper.
Q.No: 28
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q171 to 175, Use the following information:
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should:
Solution:
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.
Q.No: 29
Test Name : CAT Paper 1991
Q171 to 175, Use the following information:
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of the bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyers end and penalty of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash:
Solution:
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash may use either Test I or Test II as the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash may use either Test I or Test II as the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.
Q.No: 30
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q20 to 23: Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
The color of the Norwegians house is
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The colour of the Norwegians house is yellow.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The colour of the Norwegians house is yellow.
Q.No: 31
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q20 to 23: Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Milk is drunk by
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
Milk is drunk by the Englishman.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
Milk is drunk by the Englishman.
Q.No: 32
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q20 to 23: Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
The Norwegian drinks
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The Norwegian drinks Cocoa.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The Norwegian drinks Cocoa.
Q.No: 33
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q20 to 23: Read the text and the numbered statements carefully and answer the questions given at the end.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different color. Each person has a different favorite drink. The following additional information is also known:
The Englishman lives in the red house.
The Italian drinks tea.
The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
In the second house from the right they drink milk.
The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
Tea is drunk in the blue house.
The white house is to the right of the red house.
Which of the following is not true?
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The only statement that is not true is (d), as the Italian lives in house no. 2 and the Spaniard lives in house no. 4, which are not next to each other.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The only statement that is not true is (d), as the Italian lives in house no. 2 and the Spaniard lives in house no. 4, which are not next to each other.
Q.No: 34
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q24 to 27 : Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows:
John says, I didnt do it. Mathew didnt do it.
Mathew says. I didnt do it. Krishna didnt do it.
Krishna says. I didnt do it. I dont know who did it.
Who stole your boat?
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
Let us assume that Johns first statement is true. So his second statement must be false. This implies that Mathew did it. This makes Mathews first statement false. So the second statement has to be true. This implies that Krishna didnt do it. So Krishnas first statement is true and his second statement is false. Since all the statements are consistent with each other, the assumption made by us should be the correct one. So it is Mathew who stole the boat.
Let us assume that Johns first statement is true. So his second statement must be false. This implies that Mathew did it. This makes Mathews first statement false. So the second statement has to be true. This implies that Krishna didnt do it. So Krishnas first statement is true and his second statement is false. Since all the statements are consistent with each other, the assumption made by us should be the correct one. So it is Mathew who stole the boat.
Q.No: 35
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q24 to 27 : Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
There is only one pilot on the island. You interview three men, Koik, Lony and Mirna. You also notice that Koik is wearing a cap.
Mirna says, Lonys father is the pilot. Lony is not the priests son.
Koik says, I am the priest. On this island, only priests can wear caps.
Lony says, I am the priests son. Koik is not the priest.
Which of the following is true?
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
The key here are the statements made by Koik. Since we know that he is wearing a cap, if his first statement is false, then his second statement cannot be true. So his first statement is true and his second statement is false. This implies that Koik is the priest. This makes Lonys second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lony is Koiks son. This makes Mirnas second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lonys father is a pilot. Thus, Koik is the pilot.
The key here are the statements made by Koik. Since we know that he is wearing a cap, if his first statement is false, then his second statement cannot be true. So his first statement is true and his second statement is false. This implies that Koik is the priest. This makes Lonys second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lony is Koiks son. This makes Mirnas second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lonys father is a pilot. Thus, Koik is the pilot.
Q.No: 36
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q24 to 27 : Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
Kya Kya is an island in the South Pacific. The inhabitants of Kya Kya always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and the other always false.
You are walking on the road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants Ram, Laxman and Lila. Which road will take me to the village?
Ram says, I never speak to strangers. I am new to these parts.
Laxman says, I am married to Lila. Take the left road.
Lila says, I am married to Ram. He is not new to this place.
Which of the following is true?
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
The first statement of Ram is obviously false, as he is saying that he never speaks to a stranger, when he actually is. So he must be new to those parts. This makes the second statement of Lila false. So she should be married to Ram. This makes the first statement of Laxman false. So the left road should take you to the village.
The first statement of Ram is obviously false, as he is saying that he never speaks to a stranger, when he actually is. So he must be new to those parts. This makes the second statement of Lila false. So she should be married to Ram. This makes the first statement of Laxman false. So the left road should take you to the village.
Q.No: 37
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q163 to 166 : Use the following information:
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
How many cookies, in total, did Sneha eat?
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Sneha ate 15 cookies, in total.
Sneha ate 15 cookies, in total.
Q.No: 38
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q163 to 166 : Use the following information:
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
How many cookies did uncle Prem give to Swetha?
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Prem uncle gave 128 cookies to Swetha.
Prem uncle gave 128 cookies to Swetha.
Q.No: 39
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q163 to 166 : Use the following information:
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
How many cookies, in total, did Swetha eat?
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Swetha ate 71 cookies, in total.
Swetha ate 71 cookies, in total.
Q.No: 40
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q163 to 166 : Use the following information:
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
Swetha, Swarna, Sneha and Soumya are four sisters who have an agreement that they share all snacks equally among themselves. One day, uncle Prem gave a box of cookies to Swetha. Since the other sisters were not around, Swetha divided the cookies into four parts, ate her share and put the rest into the box. As she was closing the box, Swarna came in, She took all the cookies from the box and divided them into four equal parts. Swetha and Swarna ate one part each and put the rest into the box. Just then Sneha walked in. She took all the cookies from the box, divided them into four equal parts. The three of them ate their respective shares and put the rest into the box. Later, when Soumya came, she divided all the cookies into four equal parts and all the four sisters ate their respective shares. In total, Soumya ate 3 cookies.
How many cookies, in total, did Swarna eat?
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Swarna ate 39 cookies, in total.
Swarna ate 39 cookies, in total.
Q.No: 41
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q167 to 171 are based on the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
How many students were both female and excellent?
Solution:
Number of students who were both female and excellent = 0.
Number of students who were both female and excellent = 0.
Q.No: 42
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q167 to 171 are based on the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
How many students were both male and good?
Solution:
Number of students who were both male and good = 22.
Number of students who were both male and good = 22.
Q.No: 43
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q167 to 171 are based on the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
Among average students, what was the ratio of male to female?
Solution:
Ratio of male to female among average students = 16 : 24 = 2 : 3.
Ratio of male to female among average students = 16 : 24 = 2 : 3.
Q.No: 44
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q167 to 171 are based on the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
What proportion of female students were good?
Solution:
Q.No: 45
Test Name : CAT Paper 1993
Q167 to 171 are based on the following information:
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
A professor keeps data on students tabulated by performance and sex of the student . The data is kept on a computer disk, but unfortunately some of it is lost because of a virus. Only the following could be recovered :
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:
Half the students were either excellent or good.
40% of the students were females.
One third of the male students were average.
What proportion of good students were male?
Solution:
Q.No: 46
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q156 159 : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
The eighth person present, Jackie, must be
I. the host
II. Seated to Shobhas right
III. Seated opposite Urmila
Solution:
Q.No: 47
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q156 159 : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of the same sex?
Solution:
Q.No: 48
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q156 159 : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
If Ratan would have exchanged seats with a person four places to his left, which of the following
would have been true after the exchange?
I. No one was seated between two persons of the opposite sex. (e.g. no man was seated between
two women)
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex.
III. Either the host or the hostess changed seats.
Solution:
Q.No: 49
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q156 159 : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends. Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating arrangement was that each person must be seated such that atleast on one side it has a person of opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostesss right , next to Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila who is not the hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila, Shobha and Monisha.
If each person is placed directly opposite her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married?
Solution:
Q.No: 50
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q164 - 166: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
If Aishwarya is standing at the extreme left, who is standing in the middle?
Solution:
Q.No: 51
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q164 - 166: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
If Aishwarya stands at the extreme left, who is standing second from left?
Solution:
Q.No: 52
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q164 - 166: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
Five of Indias leading models are posing for a photograph promoting World Peace and Understanding. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha the photographer is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya refuses to stand next to Sushmita since Sushmita had said something about her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachel and Anu want to stand together because they are such good friends, yknow. Manpreet on the other hand cannot get along well with Rachel, because there is some talk about Rachel scheming to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line, promoting world peace.
If Anus astrologer tells her to stand second from left and Aishwarya decides to stand second from right, then who is the girl standing at the extreme right?
Solution:
Q.No: 53
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q171 - 174: Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
Who is the eldest brother?
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that E is the eldest brother.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that E is the eldest brother.
Q.No: 54
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q171 - 174: Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
Who is the youngest brother?
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
D is the youngest brother.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
D is the youngest brother.
Q.No: 55
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q171 - 174: Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
Which two are probably twins?
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
Only A and B could probably be twins.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
Only A and B could probably be twins.
Q.No: 56
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q171 - 174: Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B You are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he was as old as C is now. B said to A You may be older than F but G is as old as I was when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is.
Which of the following is false?
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that only statement (c) is false as B has only 2 elder brothers and not 3.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that only statement (c) is false as B has only 2 elder brothers and not 3.
Q.No: 57
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q183 - 186 : Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
Which choice of words in a sentence is not possible, if no rules of grammar are to be violated?
Solution:
All the sentences are possible except (b) as Grumbs
have to be used with Ihavitoo and Grumbs cannot be
used in any other type but Bingoes.
Q.No: 58
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q183 - 186 : Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
If Grumbs and Harrumphs are the Bingoes in a sentence, and no rule of grammar is violated, which
of the following is / are true?
I. Ihavitoo is the Cingo.
II. Lovitoo is the Dingo.
III. Either Lovitoo or Metoo must be one of or both the Dingoes.
Solution:
Since Grumbs and Harrumphs are the Bingoes and
Grumbs has to always go with Ihavitoo, so we will
have to use Ihavitoo as the Cingo. Since statement I is
true, the answer can only be (a) or (d). So we will
only evaluate the option (d). Since we have not used
Koolodo as Cingo, we can use either Lovitoo or Metoo
or both as Dingos. Hence, statement III is also true, so
the answer is (d).
Q.No: 59
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q183 - 186 : Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
Which of the following is a possible sentence if no grammar rule is violated?
Solution:
Option (b) uses two Cingos instead of one, hence
grammatically incorrect. Option (c) violates the same
rule again and in addition it uses ihavitoo without using
Grumbs. Option (d) again uses two Cingos instead of
one. Hence, the only option that is grammatically
correct is (a).
Q.No: 60
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q183 - 186 : Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
The primitive tribes folk of the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language for themselves. Which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified into only three types : the Bingoes, the Cingoes and the Dingoes.
The Bingoes type of words are : Grumbs, Harrumphs, Ihavitoo
The Cingoes type of words are : Ihavitoo, Jingongo, Koolodo
The Dingoes type of words are : Lovitoo, Metoo, Nana
They have also devised some rules of grammar:
Every sentence must have only five words.
Every sentence must have two Bingoes, one Cingo and two Dingoes.
If Grumbs is used in a sentence, Ihavitoo must also be used and vice versa.
Koolodo can be used in a sentence only if Lovitoo is used.
If in a sentence Grumps is the Bingo and no rule of grammar is violated, which of the following cannot be true?
Solution:
If Grumps is the Bingo, then Ihavitoo must also be
used. And since Ihavitoo is common to Bingo and Cingo,
Ihavitoo must be used as a Cingo . Also no other Cingo
can be used. So obviously Harrumphs must also be
used as a Bingo. And since we are not using Koolodo
as Cingo, we can use Lovitoo as Dingo. So (a), (c)
and (d) can all be true. So (b) cannot be true.
Q.No: 61
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q187 190 : are based on the table and information given below. Answer the questions based
on it.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
If Bankatlal is paid Rs. 20 per working hour in the 1st week. What is his salary for the 1st month?
Solution:
Q.No: 62
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q187 190 : are based on the table and information given below. Answer the questions based
on it.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Referring to the data given in Q.187, Bankatlals average monthly salary at the end of the first four months will be
Solution:
Q.No: 63
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q187 190 : are based on the table and information given below. Answer the questions based
on it.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
The new manager Khushaldas stipulated that Rs.5 be deducted for every hour of rest and Rs. 25 be
paid per hour starting 9th week, then what will be the change in Bankatlals salary for the 3rd month?
(Hourly deductions are constant for all weeks starting 9th week)
Solution:
Q.No: 64
Test Name : CAT Paper 1994
Q187 190 : are based on the table and information given below. Answer the questions based
on it.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Bankatlal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice what he earns per hour when he rests longer than he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13.
A week consists of six days and a month consists of 4 weeks.
Using the data in the previous questions, what will be the total earning of Bankatlal at the end of sixteen weeks.
Solution:
Q.No: 65
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 54 to 57: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the money of
each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical
order. At the end of fourth game, each sister had Rs.32.
How many rupees did Suvarna start with?
Solution:
Q.No: 66
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 54 to 57: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the money of
each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical
order. At the end of fourth game, each sister had Rs.32.
Who started with the lowest amount?
Solution:
Q.No: 67
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 54 to 57: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the money of
each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical
order. At the end of fourth game, each sister had Rs.32.
Who started with the highest amount?
Solution:
Q.No: 68
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 54 to 57: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the money of
each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost one game in alphabetical
order. At the end of fourth game, each sister had Rs.32.
What was the amount with Uma at the end of the second round?
Solution:
Q.No: 69
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 176 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
What is the maximum number of units that can be manufactured in one day?
Solution:
Q.No: 70
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 176 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
If M1 works at half its normal efficiency, what is the maximum number of units produced, if at least one unit of each must be produced?
Solution:
Q.No: 71
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 176 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
What is the least number of machine hours required to produce 30 pieces of P and 25 pieces of Q respectively?
Solution:
In order to minimize time required, we will manufacture P
on M2 and Q on M1. Number of machine hours required
to manufacture 30 units of P on M2 = (30 × 8) = 240 min
= 4 hr. Number of machine hours required to manufacture
25 units of Q on M1 = (25 × 6) = 150 min = 2.5 hr. So total
time taken = (4 + 2.5) = 6.5 hr or 6 hr 30 min.
Q.No: 72
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 176 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
If the number of units of P is to be three times that of Q, what is the maximum idle time to maximize total units manufactured?
Solution:
Q.No: 73
Test Name : CAT Paper 1995
Direction for questions 176 to 180: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
Machine M1 as well as machine M2 can independently produce either product P or product Q. The time taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and product Q are given in the table below: (Each machine works 8 hour per day).
If equal quantities of both are to be produced, then out of the four choices given below, the least efficient way would be
Solution:
Q.No: 74
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 108 and 109: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In a locality, there are five small cities: A, B, C, D and E. The distances of these cities from each other are as
follows.
If a ration shop is to be set up within 2 km of each city, how many ration shops will be required?
Solution:
Q.No: 75
Test Name : CAT Paper 1996
Direction for questions 108 and 109: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In a locality, there are five small cities: A, B, C, D and E. The distances of these cities from each other are as
follows.
If a ration shop is to be set up within 3 km of each city, how many ration shops will be required?
Solution:
Q.No: 76
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 115 to 117: Answer the questions based on the pipeline diagram below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is
Solution:
We can see that the flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati
is 300 whereas demand is 400, so the deficit 100 will
be met by flow from Vidisha. Again, the demand of
700 in Panchal is to be met by flow from Jyotishmati
which can get it from Vidisha.
Thus, the quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha 200 + 100 + 700 = 1000
Thus, the quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha 200 + 100 + 700 = 1000
Q.No: 77
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 115 to 117: Answer the questions based on the pipeline diagram below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
The free capacity available at the Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is
Solution:
Free capacity at Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is 300, since
capacity of each pipeline is 1000 and demand at
Vidisha is 400 and 300 flows to Jyotishmati.
Thus, free capacity = {1000 (400 + 300)} = 300
Thus, free capacity = {1000 (400 + 300)} = 300
Q.No: 78
Test Name : CAT Paper 2001
Directions for questions 115 to 117: Answer the questions based on the pipeline diagram below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline?
Solution:
Free capacity in Avanti-Vidisha is zero. Explanation
is similar as in previous answer.
Q.No: 79
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
Which of the following is one of the married couples?
Solution:
Q.No: 80
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
What is E's profession?
Solution:
Q.No: 81
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
How many members of the group are males?
Solution:
Q.No: 82
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 and 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom, then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom, then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
Which is a valid assignment?
Solution:
If D gets portfolio, F does not or vice-versa.
C wants only Home or Finance or none.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
Option (1) gets eliminated because C can have either Home or Finance.
Option (3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the same team.
Option (4) gets eliminated because C cannot have Telecom portfolio.
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
Option (1) gets eliminated because C can have either Home or Finance.
Option (3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the same team.
Option (4) gets eliminated because C cannot have Telecom portfolio.
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
Q.No: 83
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 and 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom, then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom, then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
If A gets Home and C gets Finance, then which is NOT a valid assignment of Defense and Telecom?
Solution:
If D gets portfolio, F does not or vice-versa.
C wants only Home or Finance or none.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
B-Defence, D - Telecom because if D gets Telecom then B must get Power.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
B-Defence, D - Telecom because if D gets Telecom then B must get Power.
Q.No: 84
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 to 94: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
G + 8 = A
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
Q.No: 85
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 to 94: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
G + 8 = A
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + J = 46
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + J = 46
Q.No: 86
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Which one of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 87
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 88
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (L)
DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Q.No: 89
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 101 to 103: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
What is the least that Daley Thompson must get in Score-2 that ensures him a bronze medal?
Solution:
The first two rankers of final score are 8905 and
8897. The third ranker is carrying a score of 8880. So
he needs to score 8881 to get a bronze, whereas his
sum is 582 + 3003 = 3585.
Least score required = 8881 3585 = 5296
Least score required = 8881 3585 = 5296
Q.No: 90
Test Name : CAT Paper 2003 (R)
Directions for questions 101 to 103: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100 m, 400 m, 100 m hurdles, 1,500 m, High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score-3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver, and the bronze medals respectively. The table below gives the scores and performance of 19 top athletes in this event.
At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped in the long jump event?
Solution:
Let the positive weights given to a competitor in High
Jump, Pole Vault and Long Jump be x, y and z
respectively. Therefore, x + y + z = Score-2
In long jump event, Michael Smith must have out-jumped
all those competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) who
had scored more than or equal to Michael Smith in
each of High Jump and Pole Vault but with consolidated
Score-2 of less than the consolidated Score-2 of
Michael Smith.
The four competitors whom Michael Smith must have out-jumped in the long jump event are Torsten Voss, Jurgen Hingsen, Grigory Degtyarov and Steve Fritz.
The four competitors whom Michael Smith must have out-jumped in the long jump event are Torsten Voss, Jurgen Hingsen, Grigory Degtyarov and Steve Fritz.
Q.No: 91
Test Name : CAT 2019 Actual Paper Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 38): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
The second question in ET was prepared by:
Solution:
Q.No: 92
Test Name : CAT 2019 Actual Paper Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 38): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
How many 5-mark questions were there in MT and ET combined?
Solution:
Q.No: 93
Test Name : CAT 2019 Actual Paper Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 38): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
Who prepared 15-mark questions for MT and ET?
Solution:
Q.No: 94
Test Name : CAT 2019 Actual Paper Slot 2
Question Numbers (35 to 38): Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
The first year students in a business school are split into six sections. In 2019 the Business Statistics course was taught in these six sections by Annie, Beti, Chetan, Dave, Esha, and Fakir. All six sections had a common midterm (MT) and a common endterm (ET) worth 100 marks each. ET contained more questions than MT. Questions for MT and ET were prepared collectively by the six faculty members. Considering MT and ET together, each faculty member prepared the same number of questions.
Each of MT and ET had at least four questions that were worth 5 marks, at least three questions that were worth 10 marks, and at least two questions that were worth 15 marks. In both MT and ET, all the 5-mark questions preceded the 10-mark questions, and all the 15-mark questions followed the 10-mark questions.
The following additional facts are known.
i. Annie prepared the fifth question for both MT and ET. For MT, this question carried 5 marks.
ii. Annie prepared one question for MT. Every other faculty member prepared more than one questions for MT.
iii. All questions prepared by a faculty member appeared consecutively in MT as well as ET.
iv. Chetan prepared the third question in both MT and ET; and Esha prepared the eighth question in both.
v. Fakir prepared the first question of MT and the last one in ET. Dave prepared the last question of MT and the first one in ET.
Which of the following questions did Beti prepare in ET?
Solution:
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Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Below 100, no test would be cheaper.
Below 100, no test would be cheaper.
Solution:
If there are 120 widgets, he should go for test I as it is cheaper.
If there are 120 widgets, he should go for test I as it is cheaper.
Solution:
It is clear from the table that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper.
It is clear from the table that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper.
Solution:
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.
In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper.
Solution:
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash may use either Test I or Test II as the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.
If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash may use either Test I or Test II as the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000.
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The colour of the Norwegians house is yellow.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The colour of the Norwegians house is yellow.
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
Milk is drunk by the Englishman.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
Milk is drunk by the Englishman.
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The Norwegian drinks Cocoa.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The Norwegian drinks Cocoa.
Solution:
If we were to number the houses 1-
2-3-4 from left to right, the information given in the question
can be depicted as:
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The only statement that is not true is (d), as the Italian lives in house no. 2 and the Spaniard lives in house no. 4, which are not next to each other.
Knowing this, we can answer all the questions.
The only statement that is not true is (d), as the Italian lives in house no. 2 and the Spaniard lives in house no. 4, which are not next to each other.
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
Let us assume that Johns first statement is true. So his second statement must be false. This implies that Mathew did it. This makes Mathews first statement false. So the second statement has to be true. This implies that Krishna didnt do it. So Krishnas first statement is true and his second statement is false. Since all the statements are consistent with each other, the assumption made by us should be the correct one. So it is Mathew who stole the boat.
Let us assume that Johns first statement is true. So his second statement must be false. This implies that Mathew did it. This makes Mathews first statement false. So the second statement has to be true. This implies that Krishna didnt do it. So Krishnas first statement is true and his second statement is false. Since all the statements are consistent with each other, the assumption made by us should be the correct one. So it is Mathew who stole the boat.
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
The key here are the statements made by Koik. Since we know that he is wearing a cap, if his first statement is false, then his second statement cannot be true. So his first statement is true and his second statement is false. This implies that Koik is the priest. This makes Lonys second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lony is Koiks son. This makes Mirnas second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lonys father is a pilot. Thus, Koik is the pilot.
The key here are the statements made by Koik. Since we know that he is wearing a cap, if his first statement is false, then his second statement cannot be true. So his first statement is true and his second statement is false. This implies that Koik is the priest. This makes Lonys second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lony is Koiks son. This makes Mirnas second statement false and so his first statement is true. So Lonys father is a pilot. Thus, Koik is the pilot.
Solution:
The best way to solve these kinds of questions is to
assume that one of the statements is either true or false and
thus figure out whether there is consistency in what everyone
is saying.
The first statement of Ram is obviously false, as he is saying that he never speaks to a stranger, when he actually is. So he must be new to those parts. This makes the second statement of Lila false. So she should be married to Ram. This makes the first statement of Laxman false. So the left road should take you to the village.
The first statement of Ram is obviously false, as he is saying that he never speaks to a stranger, when he actually is. So he must be new to those parts. This makes the second statement of Lila false. So she should be married to Ram. This makes the first statement of Laxman false. So the left road should take you to the village.
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Sneha ate 15 cookies, in total.
Sneha ate 15 cookies, in total.
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Prem uncle gave 128 cookies to Swetha.
Prem uncle gave 128 cookies to Swetha.
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Swetha ate 71 cookies, in total.
Swetha ate 71 cookies, in total.
Solution:
Since Soumya was the last one to eat the cookies and she ate 3 cookies, the total number of cookies
left when she entered the room = (3 × 4) = 12. This should be Soumyas share that was left in the box uneaten. Hence, just
before Soumya entered, Swetha, Sneha and Swarna would have eaten their share of 12 cookies each. Total number of cookies
left when Sneha entered = (12 × 4) = 48. This in turn should have been the combined share of Sneha and Soumya (24 × 2) that
was left in the box uneaten. So just before Sneha entered, Swetha and Swarna should have eaten 24 cookies each. In other,
words number of cookies left, just before Swarna entered = (24 × 4) = 96. Now this should have been the combined share of
Swarna, Sneha and Soumya (3 × 32) that was kept in the box by Swetha . So just before Swarna entered, Swetha must have
eaten her share of 32 cookies. Hence, total number of cookies given by Prem uncle = (32 × 4) = 128.
Swarna ate 39 cookies, in total.
Swarna ate 39 cookies, in total.
Solution:
Number of students who were both female and excellent = 0.
Number of students who were both female and excellent = 0.
Solution:
Number of students who were both male and good = 22.
Number of students who were both male and good = 22.
Solution:
Ratio of male to female among average students = 16 : 24 = 2 : 3.
Ratio of male to female among average students = 16 : 24 = 2 : 3.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that E is the eldest brother.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that E is the eldest brother.
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
D is the youngest brother.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
D is the youngest brother.
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
Only A and B could probably be twins.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
Only A and B could probably be twins.
Solution:
The first statement suggests : B is now as old as C was in the
past. Therefore, B < C. Also sometime in the past, A was twice
as old as D. So A > D. C will be as old as E in future. Hence C
< E.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that only statement (c) is false as B has only 2 elder brothers and not 3.
The second statement suggests : A > F. A was as old as G in the past. Therefore, A > G. D will be as old as F in future. So F > D. F will be as old as G now in future. This implies G > F. G was as old as B, when A was as old as G. Hence, A = B. Combining both the results, we get :
E > C > B = A > G > F > D (Note by A = B, it is meant that they are of similar age group, not necessarily the same).
It could be figured out that only statement (c) is false as B has only 2 elder brothers and not 3.
Solution:
All the sentences are possible except (b) as Grumbs
have to be used with Ihavitoo and Grumbs cannot be
used in any other type but Bingoes.
Solution:
Since Grumbs and Harrumphs are the Bingoes and
Grumbs has to always go with Ihavitoo, so we will
have to use Ihavitoo as the Cingo. Since statement I is
true, the answer can only be (a) or (d). So we will
only evaluate the option (d). Since we have not used
Koolodo as Cingo, we can use either Lovitoo or Metoo
or both as Dingos. Hence, statement III is also true, so
the answer is (d).
Solution:
Option (b) uses two Cingos instead of one, hence
grammatically incorrect. Option (c) violates the same
rule again and in addition it uses ihavitoo without using
Grumbs. Option (d) again uses two Cingos instead of
one. Hence, the only option that is grammatically
correct is (a).
Solution:
If Grumps is the Bingo, then Ihavitoo must also be
used. And since Ihavitoo is common to Bingo and Cingo,
Ihavitoo must be used as a Cingo . Also no other Cingo
can be used. So obviously Harrumphs must also be
used as a Bingo. And since we are not using Koolodo
as Cingo, we can use Lovitoo as Dingo. So (a), (c)
and (d) can all be true. So (b) cannot be true.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
In order to minimize time required, we will manufacture P
on M2 and Q on M1. Number of machine hours required
to manufacture 30 units of P on M2 = (30 × 8) = 240 min
= 4 hr. Number of machine hours required to manufacture
25 units of Q on M1 = (25 × 6) = 150 min = 2.5 hr. So total
time taken = (4 + 2.5) = 6.5 hr or 6 hr 30 min.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
We can see that the flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati
is 300 whereas demand is 400, so the deficit 100 will
be met by flow from Vidisha. Again, the demand of
700 in Panchal is to be met by flow from Jyotishmati
which can get it from Vidisha.
Thus, the quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha 200 + 100 + 700 = 1000
Thus, the quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha 200 + 100 + 700 = 1000
Solution:
Free capacity at Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is 300, since
capacity of each pipeline is 1000 and demand at
Vidisha is 400 and 300 flows to Jyotishmati.
Thus, free capacity = {1000 (400 + 300)} = 300
Thus, free capacity = {1000 (400 + 300)} = 300
Solution:
Free capacity in Avanti-Vidisha is zero. Explanation
is similar as in previous answer.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
If D gets portfolio, F does not or vice-versa.
C wants only Home or Finance or none.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
Option (1) gets eliminated because C can have either Home or Finance.
Option (3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the same team.
Option (4) gets eliminated because C cannot have Telecom portfolio.
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
Option (1) gets eliminated because C can have either Home or Finance.
Option (3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the same team.
Option (4) gets eliminated because C cannot have Telecom portfolio.
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
Solution:
If D gets portfolio, F does not or vice-versa.
C wants only Home or Finance or none.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
B-Defence, D - Telecom because if D gets Telecom then B must get Power.
If D gets Power, B must get Telecom or if D gets Telecom, then B must get Power.
If A gets a portfolio, E should get the same.
B-Defence, D - Telecom because if D gets Telecom then B must get Power.
Solution:
G + 8 = A
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
Solution:
G + 8 = A
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + J = 46
D + R = 37
J = D + 8
A = D + 5
A + G = 40
Solving the above equations, we get
2G = 32, G = 16, A = 24
D = 19, J = 27, R = 18
D + J = 46
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
The first two rankers of final score are 8905 and
8897. The third ranker is carrying a score of 8880. So
he needs to score 8881 to get a bronze, whereas his
sum is 582 + 3003 = 3585.
Least score required = 8881 3585 = 5296
Least score required = 8881 3585 = 5296
Solution:
Let the positive weights given to a competitor in High
Jump, Pole Vault and Long Jump be x, y and z
respectively. Therefore, x + y + z = Score-2
In long jump event, Michael Smith must have out-jumped
all those competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) who
had scored more than or equal to Michael Smith in
each of High Jump and Pole Vault but with consolidated
Score-2 of less than the consolidated Score-2 of
Michael Smith.
The four competitors whom Michael Smith must have out-jumped in the long jump event are Torsten Voss, Jurgen Hingsen, Grigory Degtyarov and Steve Fritz.
The four competitors whom Michael Smith must have out-jumped in the long jump event are Torsten Voss, Jurgen Hingsen, Grigory Degtyarov and Steve Fritz.
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
Solution:
