Q. 4 When Geeta increases her speed from
12 km/hr to 20 km/hr, she takes one hour
less than the usual time to cover the distance
between her home and office. The distance
between her home and office is _____ km.
Q. 5 The 3rd, 14th and 69th terms of an arithmetic
progression form three distinct and
consecutive terms of a geometric
progression. If the next term of the geometric
progression is the nth term of the arithmetic
progression, then n equals _____.
Q. 6 Aruna purchases a certain number of apples
for INR 20 each and a certain number of
mangoes for INR 25 each. If she sells all the
apples at 10% profit and all the mangoes at
20% loss, overall she makes neither profit
nor loss. Instead, if she sells all the apples at
20% loss and all the mangoes at 10% profit,
overall she makes a loss of INR 150. Then
the number of apples purchased by Aruna is.
Q. 10 A new sequence is obtained from the
sequence of positive integers (1, 2, 3,...) by
deleting all the perfect squares. Then the
2022nd term of the new sequence is _____.
Q. 14 Mrs. and Mr. Sharma, and Mrs. and Mr. Ahuja
along with four other persons are to be seated
at a round table for dinner. If Mrs. and
Mr. Sharma are to be seated next to each
other, and Mrs. and Mr. Ahuja are not to be
seated next to each other, then the total
number of seating arrangements is _____.
Q. 15 Let 50 distinct positive integers be chosen
such that the highest among them is 100,
and the average of the largest 25 integers
among them exceeds the average of the
remaining integers by 50. Then the maximum
possible value of the sum of all the 50 integers
is _____.
Q. 17 When the square of the difference of two
natural numbers is subtracted from the square
of the sum of the same two numbers and the
result is divided by four, we get
Q. 19 Ayesha is standing atop a vertical tower 200m
high and observes a car moving away from
the tower on a straight, horizontal road from
the foot of the tower. At 11:00 AM, she
observes the angle of depression of the car
to be 45°. At 11:02 AM, she observes the angle
of depression of the car to be 30°. The speed
at which the car is moving is approximately
Q. 22 Let A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {a, b}. Assuming all
relations from set A to set B are equally likely,
what is the probability that a relation from A
to B is also a function?
Q. 24 In a room, there are n persons whose average
height is 160 cm. If m more persons, whose
average height is 172 cm, enter the room,
then the average height of all persons in the
room becomes 164 cm. Then m : n is
Q. 25 In a right-angled triangle ABC, the hypotenuse
AC is of length 13 cm. A line drawn connecting
the midpoints D and E of sides AB and AC is
found to be 6 cm in length. The length of BC
is
Least 4-digit integer greater than 1000 divisible by
both 2 and 3 is 1002 and largest is 9996.
Total such integers = 1500
Total integers divisible by 2, 3 and 5 are = 300
Required number = 1500 – 300 = 1200.
Q. 28 Let A and B be two sets such that the
Cartesian product A × B consists of four
elements. If two elements of A × B are (1, 4)
and (4,1), then
Q. 32 The cost of a piece of jewellery is proportional
to the square of its weight. A piece of jewellery
weighing 10 grams is INR 3600. The cost of a
piece of jewellery of the same kind weighing
4 grams is
Q. 34 In a 400-metre race, Ashok beats Bipin and
Chandan respectively by 15 seconds and
25 seconds. If Ashok beats Bipin by
150 metres, by how many metres does Bipin
beat Chandan in the race?
Q. 38 In a bowl containing 60 ml orange juice,
40 ml of water is poured. Thereafter, 100 ml
of apple juice is poured to make a fruit punch.
Madhu drinks 50 ml of this fruit punch and
comments that the proportion of orange juice
needs to be higher for better taste. How much
orange juice should be poured into the fruit
punch that remained, in order to bring up the
level of orange juice to 50 percentage?
Directions for questions 41 to 45: A showroom is
open on all seven days of the week throughout the
year. There are five employees Alex, Bhabha, Cathy,
Dilip and Ethan who work in the showroom. Every
day except Sunday, two employees are required
while on Sunday three employees need to work.
Every employee works for three days in a week.
Some additional information is also provided:
• Every employee works on two consecutive
days while the third day is not consecutive.
• Alex and Dilip work together on Tuesday and
Wednesday while the other working day differs
for them.
• Neither Bhabha nor Cathy works with Alex
on any day.
• Cathy does not work either on Saturday or
on Monday.
Directions for questions 46 to 51: Read the
following passage and choose the answer that is
closest to each of the questions that are based on
the passage.
Bananas, apples, and avocados continue to ripen
after they are picked. Cherries, blackberries, and
grapes do not. The difference between climacteric
fruits (the former) and non-climacteric fruits (the latter)
matters to fruit growers and greengrocers, who must
make sure their wares are in tip-top condition when
they arrive at the marketplace. But how those
differences originally came about remains unclear.
Two biologists of the University of Tokyo offer a
suggestion. Fruits, they observe, exist to solve a
problem faced by all plants—how best to spread
their progeny around. Wrapping their seeds in a
sugary pulp to provide a tasty meal serves as a way
to get animals to do this for them. They do, however,
need to make sure that their fruits favour the animals
most likely to do the distributing. The biologists
propose that climacterism, or its absence, is a way
to achieve this. If ground-dwelling animals are the
main distributors, then the continuing ripening of fallen
fruit (i.e., climacterism) is beneficial. If, by contrast,
those distributors are arboreal or aerial, and so can
feed on unfallen fruit, then non-climacteric fruits will
do well.
To test their idea, the two researchers studied 80
varieties of fruits, and noted which animals each
depended on for its propagation. 35 of these fruits,
eaten by both ground-dwelling animals and arboreal
or aerial animals, were non-climacteric. Further, 15
of the 19 varieties eaten principally by grounddwellers
were climacteric, while 21 of the 26 fed on
by arboreal or aerial animals were non-climacteric.
That is a suggestively strong correlation. And the
authors’ hypothesis is fortified by other evidence.
They point out that non-climacteric fruits tend to have
vivid colours, especially reds and purples. This may
help them to stand out amid the foliage of their parent
plants, advertising their presence. Climacteric fruits
are generally better camouflaged. That makes them
harder to spot until they have fallen to the ground.
The main limitation of their work is that they looked
at fruits eaten by people. This has probably
contaminated the sample, for thousands of years of
selective breeding for traits that human beings find
appealing may have blurred any signal optimised by
natural selection. The next step, therefore, should
be the analysis of wild fruits.
Q. 46 Consider the following two Findings:
(i) Non-climacteric fruits tend to have vivid
colours.
(ii) Thirty-six varieties of climacteric and nonclimacteric
fruits were eaten predominantly
either by ground-dwellers, or by arboreal
or aerial animals respectively.
According to the passage,
Refer to the 3rd paragraph. For the biologists, finding
II provides the main evidence on which the hypothesis
is being tested. Finding I provides a characteristic of
non-climacteric fruits. Therefore, it is supplementary
evidence.
Refer to the second sentence of the second
paragraph where the author mentions the problem
faced by all kinds of plants – how best to spread
their progeny around.
Directions for questions 52 to 57: Read the
following passage and choose the answer that is
closest to each of the questions that are based on
the passage.
On the 14th of May 1796, vaccine matter was taken
from the hand of a dairy maid, Sarah Nelmes, and
inserted by two superficial incisions in the arms of
James Phipps, a healthy boy of about eight years of
age. The boy went through an attack of cowpox as
expected. After this, however, it was necessary to
determine whether he was protected from smallpox.
After waiting two months Jenner inoculated him with
material from a smallpox patient. He was delighted
to note that the boy was not affected by smallpox.
By 1798, Jenner had succeeded in demonstrating
the protective quality of the cowpox virus against
smallpox, by putting on record details of 23 cases,
contracted either casually or by direct inoculation.
Sixteen of these had occurred accidentally among
dairy workers in the course of occupations connected
with cows and horses; the rest were done under
Jenner’s direction. Among the persons inoculated
was Jenner’s own little second son, Robert Harding
Jenner, an infant eleven months old. Jenner
demonstrated conclusively that the cowpox protects
the human constitution from the infection of smallpox.
After Dr. Jenner had made his tests, he prepared a
pamphlet for publication. He also went to London,
so that he might have the opportunity to introduce
the subject personally to friends and demonstrate
the truth of his assertion to them. He remained in
London for nearly three months without being able
to find anyone who would submit to vaccination.
Jenner went back to Gloucestershire, disappointed.
It happened, however, that soon after his return home,
a distinguished London surgeon named Cline
resolved to make a trial of the vaccine material which
Jenner had left with his friends.
The patient was a child suffering from a form of chronic
hip-joint disease. The vaccine material was
inoculated, and the vaccine vehicle ran rather a
normal course and healed fully. The little patient was
afterward inoculated with smallpox virus and found
to be incapable of acquiring that disease. This case
attracted considerable attention. The child was in a
rundown
condition, and the vaccine material might
very well have provoked a rather serious local
reaction. In a way, the fate of vaccination hung in the
balance and good luck was in its favour. Mr. Cline,
however, after this, became a strong advocate of
vaccination, and brought it very decidedly before the
London physicians.
It was not long before the opposition to the practice
of vaccination took definite form. One of the bestknown
London physicians of the time, Dr. Ingenhouz,
became the leader of a strong faction of the medical
profession of London, who not only would have
nothing to do with vaccination, but proclaimed openly
that it was a dangerous innovation, absolutely
unjustifiable, and communicated a disease without
protecting against any other. Dr. Watt from Glasgow
blamed the vaccine for the increase in severe cases
of measles and measles- related deaths among
children.
Fortunately, only a few colleagues were so illogical,
and an excellent idea of how much Jenner’s discovery
was appreciated by his contemporaries may be
obtained from the number of honours, diplomas,
addresses and communications from public bodies
and distinguished individuals which he received. Most
of the prominent medical and scientific societies of
Europe elected him a member or sent him some
special token of recognition.
The 1st paragraph clearly shows that Jenner took
risk by incoluting people with cowpox virus to find
the cure for smallpox which is more severe and
deadly. He even did that to his infant kid. The rest of
the passage proves that the risks he took, made him
successful.
Q. 56 Jenner received a lot of recognition from
medical bodies because
a taste of her own medicine means harsh or
unpleasant treatment that is like the treatment someone
has given other people. So Rita is getting back the
same treatment which she has given others.
Q. 62 For the past three decades, this chain of
coffee shops has been committed to building
a culture where everyone is welcome. They
are an ally to the LGBTQ community, and
this is just one instance of their ____.
To look on the bright side means to be optimistic or
cheerful in spite of difficulties. Hence d is the correct
answer.
Q. 64 Some of the best spies take the guise of
innocuous secretaries or researchers and are
able to send large amounts of information to
their heads of espionage, as they are
The sentence talks about spies hiding in the guise of
secretaries and researchers which indicates that
they are hiding in plain sight.
Directions for questions 65 to 69: In each of the
following sentences, the incorrect part of the
sentence is underlined. Choose an alternative from
the four given options so that the sentence is rendered
correct.
Q. 65 If I had known that you needed to go to the
airport yesterday, I could drive you there.
The underlined sentence is in future tense which is
not in coordination with the 1st part of the sentence.
Option c depicts the correct answer.
Directions for questions 70 to 73: Each of the
paragraphs given below has a sentence missing
which is indicated by a blank. From the choices
given below each paragraph, choose the sentence
that seems most logically appropriate to complete
the paragraph.
Q. 70 Nowadays, many teenagers and young adults
around the world have to spend most of their
time studying in order to get top grades, a
university place, and a good job.
______________. There are several causes
for this situation, one of the main ones being
exams. These are stressful experiences, and
most students take a huge number of them
during their school career.
The given paragraph deals with students donating
most of their time to studies and jobs. Now look at the
part of the sentence after the blank. it points out to
something that students compromise because of this
hectic rat race life of theirs. Hence only c fits the
blank correctly.
Q. 71 ______________.In Southeast Asia, for
example, climate and lifestyle factors mean
that people spend much more time in
shopping malls than Europeans do, who might
go shopping once a fortnight. Then there are
gender variations in the way we shop. As
descendants of hunter-gatherers,
accumulating is in our blood, but how you go
about it depends on whether you are male or
female.
Since the paragraph mentions different cultures such
as Southeast Asian and European, option b seems to
be the most thematically appropriate for the blank space.
Q. 72 This winter, I wish to go to the beaches for a
holiday. I think I will go to Goa, India’s most
well-known beach holiday destination. It is
about 600 km away from Mumbai, so
reaching there is not a major problem.
______________. The major Goan beaches
are tourist attractions and have some good
beach-view hotels and plenty of shops selling
touristy things such as beach robes, hats,
jewellery, bags, and more.
The passage says that reaching Goa from Mumbai is
not a problem. So, option b that lists out the transport
options is the correct option for the blank space.
Q. 73 The people of the Indus Valley civilization wrote
with a script. So far scholars have been unable
to decipher that script. Archaeologists who
have been excavating newly discovered sites
in Mesopotamia hope to find a text that has
scripts from both the Indus valley and
Mesopotamia, the second of which has
already been deciphered ______________.
The passage talks about the Indus Valley script that
has not been deciphered so far. Therefore,
thematically, option d is the correct option.
Directions for questions 74 to 79: The sentences
below have words that are missing. Choose the best
option from those given below to complete the
sentence.
Q. 74 Achieving spaceflight enabled humans to
begin to explore the solar system and the
rest of the ______________, to understand
the many objects and ______________ that
are better observed from a space perspective,
and to use for human benefit the resources
and attributes of the space environment. All
of these activities-discovery, scientific
understanding, and the ______________ of
that understanding to serve human purposes
- are elements of space ______________.
For the first blank, ‘universe’ is the correct option
because the sentence talks about the exploration of
the solar system and the rest of the universe. Only
‘phenomenon’ or ‘multiple phenomena’ can be
observed from a space perspective. The passage
talks about space exploration. For the fourth blank
therefore, ‘exploration’ is apt. So, option c is correct.
Q. 75 The beauty of ______________ is that it poses
thought-provoking questions and inspires us
to think deeply about ______________ and
life in general. Further, ______________
about the ideas and perspectives outlined by
different thinkers can help us to gain a better
______________of the world we live in.
The passage talks about Philosophy. So, for the first
blank, ‘philosophy’ is apt. For the second blank,
‘ourselves’ is the most appropriate. For the third blank,
‘pondering’ is the most appropriate. Philosophy helps
us in a better understanding of the world. So, option
d is the correct answer.
Q. 76 Visually strong, __________ films of the
1920s are __________ preserved and suffer
from censorship cuts, leading to the
__________ that they were primitive and
barely watchable.
Films of the 1920s were obviously silent. A ‘poorly’
preserved’ film will lead to a misunderstanding or
‘misconception’. So, option d is the most appropriate.
Q. 77 The investigators have __________ that he
had leaked confidential __________
information about the acquisition, thereby
allowing associates to profit __________ from
the deal.
The passage talks about an allegation by the
investigators. Since investigators are involved, it is
probable that there is something illicit or illegal about
the incident. So, option d is the most apt answer.
Q. 78 In an anthropocentric__________, animals
are no more than property to human beings.
Therefore, the concepts of ‘humane’ treatment
and ‘necessary’ __________are economic in
nature. The idea that killing animals is not a
serious issue as long as animals are not
made to suffer rests __________ on the widely
accepted idea that animals do not have a right
to life.
The first blank requires a word similar to ‘worldview’.
The passage talks about killing animals. So, ‘suffering’
is an apt word for the second blank. Since the
passage talks about anthropocentric worldview, the
last blank requires an ‘explicit’ belief that animals are
subservient to humans. Therefore, option a is correct.
Q. 79 Everyday more than 1 billion promotional
messages are sent that are commercial and
__________. Although __________ have used
more technology to stop this, __________find
ways around it.
Promotional messages are usually ‘unsolicited’.
‘Regulators’ try to stop this menace but spammers
continue sending spam messages.
Q. 80 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
In the context of the sentence, the correct word
should be ‘drawer’.
Q. 81 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
The correct word should be ‘flaunted’. It refers to
showing off something.
Q. 82 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
In the context of the sentence, the correct word can
be ‘blot’ and not ‘spot’.
Q. 83 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
Instead of ‘state’, the correct word should be ‘taste’.
Q. 84 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
The correct word should be ‘collate’ which means ‘to
gather’. ‘Collaborate’ has been wrongly used.
Q. 85 Directions for questions 80 to 85: One of the
statements below contains a word used incorrectly.
Choose the option which has the incorrect or
inappropriate usage of the word.
The correct word is ‘crass’ that means stupid or
insensitive.
Directions for questions 86 to 90: The sentences
given below, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with
a number. Decide on the most logical order and enter
the sequence of numbers in the space provided. Only
numbers are to be entered in the space provided for
the answer, and no other letters or characters should
be entered. For example, a response such as 3412
or 25143 is valid, and a response such as 3412. or
25143. is invalid.
Q. 86 (1) A sub-par monsoon cuts farm yields,
output, and farm incomes, increasing the
country’s dependence on food imports.
(2) A robust monsoon will help put a lid on
food inflation by increasing domestic
output of a variety of goods and
commodities.
(3) This is because half the Indian population
depends upon farm-derived income.
(4) The June-to-September rain-bearing
system is often called the lifeblood of the
country’s economy.
(5) Unfortunately, however, nearly 40% of
India’s net sown area does not have
access to irrigation.
Sentences 4 and 3 form a mandatory pair because
sentence 3 explains why the monsoon is called the
life-blood. Sentences 5 and 1 form a mandatory pair
as well because the sentences highlight the lands
not served by irrigation channels and how a subpar
monsoon can have an adverse impact on agriculture.
Q. 87 (1) Located in the foothills of the Sion Fort,
the lake is a Grade ll-A heritage structure,
dating back to the 17th century.
(2) Once home to several marine creatures,
the lake is now surrounded by high-rise
residential buildings.
(3) The Municipal Corporation is set to breathe
life back into the city’s SionTalao (Lake)
with the rejuvenation and beautification of
the centuries-old lake.
(4) Over the years, the lake has lost its
prominence.
(5) Earlier the talao was a known natural
water tank with the Sion hillock expanding
around it like an enclosing wall.
Sentences 3, 1, 5 form a mandatory sequence
because they provide the readers information about
the Sion lake. Sentences 4 and 2 form a mandatory
pair because they show the degradation of the lake
and its present condition.
Q. 88 (1) This means the brain receives less input
over the course of a day.
(2) Youthful eyes jiggle regularly to take in
new or unfamiliar stimuli.
(3) As the person attached to those eyes
ages, the eye muscles grow slower and
the pathways between the eye and the
brain grow longer, more complex, or, in
some cases, get damaged.
(4) Our eyes quickly scan the surroundings
and then send the data to the brain.
(5) Human eyes perform jiggles, more
formally called saccades, in response to
a change in the field of vision.
Sentences 5 and 4 form a mandatory pair because
explain how the human eyes perform jiggles.
Sentences 3 and 1 also form a mandatory pair
because they highlight how the eye muscles function
in an aged person.
Q. 89 (1) The popularity of these creations grew
along with that of the tea ceremony in the
16th century.
(2) However, savvy tourists find the best
bargains for ceramics in Tokyo’s Kitchen
Town.
(3) Modern shops in touristy spots display
thousands of them, both hand crafted and
factory made.
(4) Japanese artisans have been making
ceramics, known as Yakimono since
prehistoric times.
Sentences 4 and 1 form a mandatory pair. ‘These
creations’ in sentence 1 refer to ‘Yakimono’ in sentence
1. Sentences 3 and 2 form a mandatory pair as well.
Both sentences highlight how Yakimonos are
displayed in certain places for tourists and how
tourists prefer buying them.
Q. 90 (1) The Central African Republic has approved
Bitcoin as an official currency.
(2) Experts foresee that this will damage the
environment as well as the economy.
(3) Others claim that this may make money
laundering easy and also use up a lot of
electricity.
(4) Economists criticised this move as a
potential risk to the financial stability of
the nation.
Sentences 1 and 4 form a mandatory pair. The move
described in sentence 4 actually refers to the
approval of bitcoin as the official currency by the
Central African Republic. Sentences 3 and 2 form a
mandatory pair because they describe how bitcoins
can be harmful.
